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Convergence in probability and convergence in distribution


MLE using multivariate normal distributionCollege enrollment probability modelHow do I find the probability mass function of an individual observation for a multinomial logit model?Stochastic process difference equation: stationary distributionWhy use geometric mean for GDP when calculating the credit-to-gdp ratio?To obtain the distribution/variance of two random coefficientsIs the mode of wage distribution a meaningful economic indicator?Reference request: Gender wage gap / Minority wage gapHow to calculate probability of type 1 error from probability density functionIndependently and Identically distributed random variables













6












$begingroup$


Im a little confused about the difference of these two concepts, especially the convergence of probability. I understand that $X_n oversetpto Z $ if $Pr(|X_n - Z|>epsilon)=0$ for any $epsilon >0$ when $n rightarrow infty$.



I just need some clarification on what the subscript $n$ means and what $Z$ means. Is $n$ the sample size? is $Z$ a specific value, or another random variable? If it is another random variable, then wouldn't that mean that convergence in probability implies convergence in distribution? Also, Could you please give me some examples of things that are convergent in distribution but not in probability?










share|improve this question







New contributor




Martin is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    See: quora.com/…
    $endgroup$
    – afreelunch
    yesterday















6












$begingroup$


Im a little confused about the difference of these two concepts, especially the convergence of probability. I understand that $X_n oversetpto Z $ if $Pr(|X_n - Z|>epsilon)=0$ for any $epsilon >0$ when $n rightarrow infty$.



I just need some clarification on what the subscript $n$ means and what $Z$ means. Is $n$ the sample size? is $Z$ a specific value, or another random variable? If it is another random variable, then wouldn't that mean that convergence in probability implies convergence in distribution? Also, Could you please give me some examples of things that are convergent in distribution but not in probability?










share|improve this question







New contributor




Martin is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    See: quora.com/…
    $endgroup$
    – afreelunch
    yesterday













6












6








6


1



$begingroup$


Im a little confused about the difference of these two concepts, especially the convergence of probability. I understand that $X_n oversetpto Z $ if $Pr(|X_n - Z|>epsilon)=0$ for any $epsilon >0$ when $n rightarrow infty$.



I just need some clarification on what the subscript $n$ means and what $Z$ means. Is $n$ the sample size? is $Z$ a specific value, or another random variable? If it is another random variable, then wouldn't that mean that convergence in probability implies convergence in distribution? Also, Could you please give me some examples of things that are convergent in distribution but not in probability?










share|improve this question







New contributor




Martin is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







$endgroup$




Im a little confused about the difference of these two concepts, especially the convergence of probability. I understand that $X_n oversetpto Z $ if $Pr(|X_n - Z|>epsilon)=0$ for any $epsilon >0$ when $n rightarrow infty$.



I just need some clarification on what the subscript $n$ means and what $Z$ means. Is $n$ the sample size? is $Z$ a specific value, or another random variable? If it is another random variable, then wouldn't that mean that convergence in probability implies convergence in distribution? Also, Could you please give me some examples of things that are convergent in distribution but not in probability?







econometrics statistics






share|improve this question







New contributor




Martin is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











share|improve this question







New contributor




Martin is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









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asked yesterday









Martin Martin

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  • $begingroup$
    See: quora.com/…
    $endgroup$
    – afreelunch
    yesterday
















  • $begingroup$
    See: quora.com/…
    $endgroup$
    – afreelunch
    yesterday















$begingroup$
See: quora.com/…
$endgroup$
– afreelunch
yesterday




$begingroup$
See: quora.com/…
$endgroup$
– afreelunch
yesterday










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















5












$begingroup$

I will attempt to explain the distinction using the simplest example: the sample mean. Suppose we have an iid sample of random variables $X_i_i=1^n$. Then define the sample mean as $barX_n$. As the sample size grows, our value of the sample mean changes, hence the subscript $n$ to emphasize that our sample mean depends on the sample size.



Noting that $barX_n$ itself is a random variable, we can define a sequence of random variables, where elements of the sequence are indexed by different samples (sample size is growing), i.e. $barX_n_n=1^infty$. The weak law of large numbers (WLLN) tells us that so long as $E(X_1^2)<infty$, that
$$plimbarX_n = mu,$$
or equivalently
$$barX_n rightarrow_P mu,$$



where $mu=E(X_1)$. Formally, convergence in probability is defined as
$$forall epsilon>0, lim_n rightarrow infty P(|barX_n - mu| <epsilon)=1. $$
In other words, the probability of our estimate being within $epsilon$ from the true value tends to 1 as $n rightarrow infty$. Convergence in probability gives us confidence our estimators perform well with large samples.



Convergence in distribution tell us something very different and is primarily used for hypothesis testing. Under the same distributional assumptions described above, CLT gives us that
$$sqrtn(barX_n-mu) rightarrow_D N(0,E(X_1^2)).$$
Convergence in distribution means that the cdf of the left-hand size converges at all continuity points to the cdf of the right-hand side, i.e.
$$lim_n rightarrow infty F_n(x) = F(x),$$
where $F_n(x)$ is the cdf of $sqrtn(barX_n-mu)$ and $F(x)$ is the cdf for a $N(0,E(X_1^2))$ distribution. Knowing the limiting distribution allows us to test hypotheses about the sample mean (or whatever estimate we are generating).






share|improve this answer










New contributor




dlnB is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.






$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Your definition of convergence in probability is more demanding than the standard definition. For example, suppose $X_n = 1$ with probability $1/n$, with $X_n = 0$ otherwise. It’s clear that $X_n$ must converge in probability to $0$. However, $X_n$ does not converge to $0$ according to your definition, because we always have that $P(|X_n| < varepsilon ) neq 1$ for $varepsilon < 1$ and any $n$.
    $endgroup$
    – Theoretical Economist
    15 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, you are right. I posted my answer too quickly and made an error in writing the definition of weak convergence. I have corrected my post.
    $endgroup$
    – dlnB
    14 hours ago










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1 Answer
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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

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active

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active

oldest

votes









5












$begingroup$

I will attempt to explain the distinction using the simplest example: the sample mean. Suppose we have an iid sample of random variables $X_i_i=1^n$. Then define the sample mean as $barX_n$. As the sample size grows, our value of the sample mean changes, hence the subscript $n$ to emphasize that our sample mean depends on the sample size.



Noting that $barX_n$ itself is a random variable, we can define a sequence of random variables, where elements of the sequence are indexed by different samples (sample size is growing), i.e. $barX_n_n=1^infty$. The weak law of large numbers (WLLN) tells us that so long as $E(X_1^2)<infty$, that
$$plimbarX_n = mu,$$
or equivalently
$$barX_n rightarrow_P mu,$$



where $mu=E(X_1)$. Formally, convergence in probability is defined as
$$forall epsilon>0, lim_n rightarrow infty P(|barX_n - mu| <epsilon)=1. $$
In other words, the probability of our estimate being within $epsilon$ from the true value tends to 1 as $n rightarrow infty$. Convergence in probability gives us confidence our estimators perform well with large samples.



Convergence in distribution tell us something very different and is primarily used for hypothesis testing. Under the same distributional assumptions described above, CLT gives us that
$$sqrtn(barX_n-mu) rightarrow_D N(0,E(X_1^2)).$$
Convergence in distribution means that the cdf of the left-hand size converges at all continuity points to the cdf of the right-hand side, i.e.
$$lim_n rightarrow infty F_n(x) = F(x),$$
where $F_n(x)$ is the cdf of $sqrtn(barX_n-mu)$ and $F(x)$ is the cdf for a $N(0,E(X_1^2))$ distribution. Knowing the limiting distribution allows us to test hypotheses about the sample mean (or whatever estimate we are generating).






share|improve this answer










New contributor




dlnB is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.






$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Your definition of convergence in probability is more demanding than the standard definition. For example, suppose $X_n = 1$ with probability $1/n$, with $X_n = 0$ otherwise. It’s clear that $X_n$ must converge in probability to $0$. However, $X_n$ does not converge to $0$ according to your definition, because we always have that $P(|X_n| < varepsilon ) neq 1$ for $varepsilon < 1$ and any $n$.
    $endgroup$
    – Theoretical Economist
    15 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, you are right. I posted my answer too quickly and made an error in writing the definition of weak convergence. I have corrected my post.
    $endgroup$
    – dlnB
    14 hours ago















5












$begingroup$

I will attempt to explain the distinction using the simplest example: the sample mean. Suppose we have an iid sample of random variables $X_i_i=1^n$. Then define the sample mean as $barX_n$. As the sample size grows, our value of the sample mean changes, hence the subscript $n$ to emphasize that our sample mean depends on the sample size.



Noting that $barX_n$ itself is a random variable, we can define a sequence of random variables, where elements of the sequence are indexed by different samples (sample size is growing), i.e. $barX_n_n=1^infty$. The weak law of large numbers (WLLN) tells us that so long as $E(X_1^2)<infty$, that
$$plimbarX_n = mu,$$
or equivalently
$$barX_n rightarrow_P mu,$$



where $mu=E(X_1)$. Formally, convergence in probability is defined as
$$forall epsilon>0, lim_n rightarrow infty P(|barX_n - mu| <epsilon)=1. $$
In other words, the probability of our estimate being within $epsilon$ from the true value tends to 1 as $n rightarrow infty$. Convergence in probability gives us confidence our estimators perform well with large samples.



Convergence in distribution tell us something very different and is primarily used for hypothesis testing. Under the same distributional assumptions described above, CLT gives us that
$$sqrtn(barX_n-mu) rightarrow_D N(0,E(X_1^2)).$$
Convergence in distribution means that the cdf of the left-hand size converges at all continuity points to the cdf of the right-hand side, i.e.
$$lim_n rightarrow infty F_n(x) = F(x),$$
where $F_n(x)$ is the cdf of $sqrtn(barX_n-mu)$ and $F(x)$ is the cdf for a $N(0,E(X_1^2))$ distribution. Knowing the limiting distribution allows us to test hypotheses about the sample mean (or whatever estimate we are generating).






share|improve this answer










New contributor




dlnB is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.






$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Your definition of convergence in probability is more demanding than the standard definition. For example, suppose $X_n = 1$ with probability $1/n$, with $X_n = 0$ otherwise. It’s clear that $X_n$ must converge in probability to $0$. However, $X_n$ does not converge to $0$ according to your definition, because we always have that $P(|X_n| < varepsilon ) neq 1$ for $varepsilon < 1$ and any $n$.
    $endgroup$
    – Theoretical Economist
    15 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, you are right. I posted my answer too quickly and made an error in writing the definition of weak convergence. I have corrected my post.
    $endgroup$
    – dlnB
    14 hours ago













5












5








5





$begingroup$

I will attempt to explain the distinction using the simplest example: the sample mean. Suppose we have an iid sample of random variables $X_i_i=1^n$. Then define the sample mean as $barX_n$. As the sample size grows, our value of the sample mean changes, hence the subscript $n$ to emphasize that our sample mean depends on the sample size.



Noting that $barX_n$ itself is a random variable, we can define a sequence of random variables, where elements of the sequence are indexed by different samples (sample size is growing), i.e. $barX_n_n=1^infty$. The weak law of large numbers (WLLN) tells us that so long as $E(X_1^2)<infty$, that
$$plimbarX_n = mu,$$
or equivalently
$$barX_n rightarrow_P mu,$$



where $mu=E(X_1)$. Formally, convergence in probability is defined as
$$forall epsilon>0, lim_n rightarrow infty P(|barX_n - mu| <epsilon)=1. $$
In other words, the probability of our estimate being within $epsilon$ from the true value tends to 1 as $n rightarrow infty$. Convergence in probability gives us confidence our estimators perform well with large samples.



Convergence in distribution tell us something very different and is primarily used for hypothesis testing. Under the same distributional assumptions described above, CLT gives us that
$$sqrtn(barX_n-mu) rightarrow_D N(0,E(X_1^2)).$$
Convergence in distribution means that the cdf of the left-hand size converges at all continuity points to the cdf of the right-hand side, i.e.
$$lim_n rightarrow infty F_n(x) = F(x),$$
where $F_n(x)$ is the cdf of $sqrtn(barX_n-mu)$ and $F(x)$ is the cdf for a $N(0,E(X_1^2))$ distribution. Knowing the limiting distribution allows us to test hypotheses about the sample mean (or whatever estimate we are generating).






share|improve this answer










New contributor




dlnB is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.






$endgroup$



I will attempt to explain the distinction using the simplest example: the sample mean. Suppose we have an iid sample of random variables $X_i_i=1^n$. Then define the sample mean as $barX_n$. As the sample size grows, our value of the sample mean changes, hence the subscript $n$ to emphasize that our sample mean depends on the sample size.



Noting that $barX_n$ itself is a random variable, we can define a sequence of random variables, where elements of the sequence are indexed by different samples (sample size is growing), i.e. $barX_n_n=1^infty$. The weak law of large numbers (WLLN) tells us that so long as $E(X_1^2)<infty$, that
$$plimbarX_n = mu,$$
or equivalently
$$barX_n rightarrow_P mu,$$



where $mu=E(X_1)$. Formally, convergence in probability is defined as
$$forall epsilon>0, lim_n rightarrow infty P(|barX_n - mu| <epsilon)=1. $$
In other words, the probability of our estimate being within $epsilon$ from the true value tends to 1 as $n rightarrow infty$. Convergence in probability gives us confidence our estimators perform well with large samples.



Convergence in distribution tell us something very different and is primarily used for hypothesis testing. Under the same distributional assumptions described above, CLT gives us that
$$sqrtn(barX_n-mu) rightarrow_D N(0,E(X_1^2)).$$
Convergence in distribution means that the cdf of the left-hand size converges at all continuity points to the cdf of the right-hand side, i.e.
$$lim_n rightarrow infty F_n(x) = F(x),$$
where $F_n(x)$ is the cdf of $sqrtn(barX_n-mu)$ and $F(x)$ is the cdf for a $N(0,E(X_1^2))$ distribution. Knowing the limiting distribution allows us to test hypotheses about the sample mean (or whatever estimate we are generating).







share|improve this answer










New contributor




dlnB is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









share|improve this answer



share|improve this answer








edited 14 hours ago





















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answered yesterday









dlnBdlnB

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4258




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dlnB is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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dlnB is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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  • $begingroup$
    Your definition of convergence in probability is more demanding than the standard definition. For example, suppose $X_n = 1$ with probability $1/n$, with $X_n = 0$ otherwise. It’s clear that $X_n$ must converge in probability to $0$. However, $X_n$ does not converge to $0$ according to your definition, because we always have that $P(|X_n| < varepsilon ) neq 1$ for $varepsilon < 1$ and any $n$.
    $endgroup$
    – Theoretical Economist
    15 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, you are right. I posted my answer too quickly and made an error in writing the definition of weak convergence. I have corrected my post.
    $endgroup$
    – dlnB
    14 hours ago
















  • $begingroup$
    Your definition of convergence in probability is more demanding than the standard definition. For example, suppose $X_n = 1$ with probability $1/n$, with $X_n = 0$ otherwise. It’s clear that $X_n$ must converge in probability to $0$. However, $X_n$ does not converge to $0$ according to your definition, because we always have that $P(|X_n| < varepsilon ) neq 1$ for $varepsilon < 1$ and any $n$.
    $endgroup$
    – Theoretical Economist
    15 hours ago










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, you are right. I posted my answer too quickly and made an error in writing the definition of weak convergence. I have corrected my post.
    $endgroup$
    – dlnB
    14 hours ago















$begingroup$
Your definition of convergence in probability is more demanding than the standard definition. For example, suppose $X_n = 1$ with probability $1/n$, with $X_n = 0$ otherwise. It’s clear that $X_n$ must converge in probability to $0$. However, $X_n$ does not converge to $0$ according to your definition, because we always have that $P(|X_n| < varepsilon ) neq 1$ for $varepsilon < 1$ and any $n$.
$endgroup$
– Theoretical Economist
15 hours ago




$begingroup$
Your definition of convergence in probability is more demanding than the standard definition. For example, suppose $X_n = 1$ with probability $1/n$, with $X_n = 0$ otherwise. It’s clear that $X_n$ must converge in probability to $0$. However, $X_n$ does not converge to $0$ according to your definition, because we always have that $P(|X_n| < varepsilon ) neq 1$ for $varepsilon < 1$ and any $n$.
$endgroup$
– Theoretical Economist
15 hours ago












$begingroup$
Yes, you are right. I posted my answer too quickly and made an error in writing the definition of weak convergence. I have corrected my post.
$endgroup$
– dlnB
14 hours ago




$begingroup$
Yes, you are right. I posted my answer too quickly and made an error in writing the definition of weak convergence. I have corrected my post.
$endgroup$
– dlnB
14 hours ago










Martin is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.









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