Sequence of Tenses: Translating the subjunctiveHelp finding the use of the subjunctiveMemento quod <subjunctive>Does using quippe in a relative clause require conjunctive?What is the optative?Can a subjunctive verb ever be modified by οὐ? (Greek)“..so that others may live”, future subjunctive?Passive Subjunctive Translated as ActiveWhich adverbs of possibility and probability warrant the subjunctive?When to use cum + subjunctive and when cum + indicativeReflexive Pronouns & Indirect StatementsAccusative in genitive relative clause with verb finiebat
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Sequence of Tenses: Translating the subjunctive
Help finding the use of the subjunctiveMemento quod <subjunctive>Does using quippe in a relative clause require conjunctive?What is the optative?Can a subjunctive verb ever be modified by οὐ? (Greek)“..so that others may live”, future subjunctive?Passive Subjunctive Translated as ActiveWhich adverbs of possibility and probability warrant the subjunctive?When to use cum + subjunctive and when cum + indicativeReflexive Pronouns & Indirect StatementsAccusative in genitive relative clause with verb finiebat
This is probably a pretty basic question, but I am new to Latin and am having trouble understanding the subjunctive.
The sentence "Pūgnāverō ut nautam superem" is translated to "I shall have fought in order that I may overcome the sailor" (according to my textbook). I understand that pūgnāverō is active, indicative, future perfect, first person, singular, which so far I would have believed to be translated as "I will have fought (already)." I am confused because my book uses the word "shall," which to me signals that it is subjunctive.
My questions are:
- Am I misunderstanding the way "shall" is used?
- Is this something that only occurs in clauses of purpose, i.e., is this occurring because "superem" is subjunctive?
There is a similar post here, but I feel it does not answer my question.
coniunctivus purpose-clause
asked Mar 27 at 20:02
Kevin MillerKevin Miller
1334
add a comment |
This is probably a pretty basic question, but I am new to Latin and am having trouble understanding the subjunctive.
The sentence "Pūgnāverō ut nautam superem" is translated to "I shall have fought in order that I may overcome the sailor" (according to my textbook). I understand that pūgnāverō is active, indicative, future perfect, first person, singular, which so far I would have believed to be translated as "I will have fought (already)." I am confused because my book uses the word "shall," which to me signals that it is subjunctive.
My questions are:
- Am I misunderstanding the way "shall" is used?
- Is this something that only occurs in clauses of purpose, i.e., is this occurring because "superem" is subjunctive?
There is a similar post here, but I feel it does not answer my question.
coniunctivus purpose-clause
asked Mar 27 at 20:02
Kevin MillerKevin Miller
1334
add a comment |
This is probably a pretty basic question, but I am new to Latin and am having trouble understanding the subjunctive.
The sentence "Pūgnāverō ut nautam superem" is translated to "I shall have fought in order that I may overcome the sailor" (according to my textbook). I understand that pūgnāverō is active, indicative, future perfect, first person, singular, which so far I would have believed to be translated as "I will have fought (already)." I am confused because my book uses the word "shall," which to me signals that it is subjunctive.
My questions are:
- Am I misunderstanding the way "shall" is used?
- Is this something that only occurs in clauses of purpose, i.e., is this occurring because "superem" is subjunctive?
There is a similar post here, but I feel it does not answer my question.
coniunctivus purpose-clause
asked Mar 27 at 20:02
Kevin MillerKevin Miller
1334
This is probably a pretty basic question, but I am new to Latin and am having trouble understanding the subjunctive.
The sentence "Pūgnāverō ut nautam superem" is translated to "I shall have fought in order that I may overcome the sailor" (according to my textbook). I understand that pūgnāverō is active, indicative, future perfect, first person, singular, which so far I would have believed to be translated as "I will have fought (already)." I am confused because my book uses the word "shall," which to me signals that it is subjunctive.
My questions are:
- Am I misunderstanding the way "shall" is used?
- Is this something that only occurs in clauses of purpose, i.e., is this occurring because "superem" is subjunctive?
There is a similar post here, but I feel it does not answer my question.
coniunctivus purpose-clause
coniunctivus purpose-clause
asked Mar 27 at 20:02
Kevin MillerKevin Miller
1334
asked Mar 27 at 20:02
Kevin MillerKevin Miller
1334
asked Mar 27 at 20:02
Kevin MillerKevin Miller
1334
asked Mar 27 at 20:02
Kevin MillerKevin Miller
1334
asked Mar 27 at 20:02
Kevin MillerKevin Miller
1334
1334
add a comment |
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
You're misunderstanding 'shall.' The traditional convention ('rule') in English is that 'shall' is used with first person subjects (I/we) to form the future and future perfect tenses, whereas 'will' is used for second person (you) and third person (he/she/it/they).* Your textbook is clearly following this convention. The fact that there's also a purpose clause in the sentence has nothing to do with it.
* (Except in emphatic utterances, where the future expresses strong determination to do something; in such cases, 'will' is traditionally used for the first person, 'shall' for the second and third persons.)
answered Mar 27 at 20:14
cnreadcnread
8,97711124
I had no idea this was a normal convention. Thanks!
– Kevin Miller
Mar 27 at 21:20
add a comment |
The future-perfect is a primary tense for something that has still to be completed; "already" would refer to the past. This is a purpose/ final clause therefore, after ut, the present subjunctive is deployed--superem.
answered Mar 27 at 20:28
tonytony
68918
add a comment |
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2 Answers
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2 Answers
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active
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active
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You're misunderstanding 'shall.' The traditional convention ('rule') in English is that 'shall' is used with first person subjects (I/we) to form the future and future perfect tenses, whereas 'will' is used for second person (you) and third person (he/she/it/they).* Your textbook is clearly following this convention. The fact that there's also a purpose clause in the sentence has nothing to do with it.
* (Except in emphatic utterances, where the future expresses strong determination to do something; in such cases, 'will' is traditionally used for the first person, 'shall' for the second and third persons.)
answered Mar 27 at 20:14
cnreadcnread
8,97711124
I had no idea this was a normal convention. Thanks!
– Kevin Miller
Mar 27 at 21:20
add a comment |
You're misunderstanding 'shall.' The traditional convention ('rule') in English is that 'shall' is used with first person subjects (I/we) to form the future and future perfect tenses, whereas 'will' is used for second person (you) and third person (he/she/it/they).* Your textbook is clearly following this convention. The fact that there's also a purpose clause in the sentence has nothing to do with it.
* (Except in emphatic utterances, where the future expresses strong determination to do something; in such cases, 'will' is traditionally used for the first person, 'shall' for the second and third persons.)
answered Mar 27 at 20:14
cnreadcnread
8,97711124
I had no idea this was a normal convention. Thanks!
– Kevin Miller
Mar 27 at 21:20
add a comment |
You're misunderstanding 'shall.' The traditional convention ('rule') in English is that 'shall' is used with first person subjects (I/we) to form the future and future perfect tenses, whereas 'will' is used for second person (you) and third person (he/she/it/they).* Your textbook is clearly following this convention. The fact that there's also a purpose clause in the sentence has nothing to do with it.
* (Except in emphatic utterances, where the future expresses strong determination to do something; in such cases, 'will' is traditionally used for the first person, 'shall' for the second and third persons.)
answered Mar 27 at 20:14
cnreadcnread
8,97711124
You're misunderstanding 'shall.' The traditional convention ('rule') in English is that 'shall' is used with first person subjects (I/we) to form the future and future perfect tenses, whereas 'will' is used for second person (you) and third person (he/she/it/they).* Your textbook is clearly following this convention. The fact that there's also a purpose clause in the sentence has nothing to do with it.
* (Except in emphatic utterances, where the future expresses strong determination to do something; in such cases, 'will' is traditionally used for the first person, 'shall' for the second and third persons.)
answered Mar 27 at 20:14
cnreadcnread
8,97711124
edited Mar 27 at 20:22
answered Mar 27 at 20:14
cnreadcnread
8,97711124
answered Mar 27 at 20:14
cnreadcnread
8,97711124
answered Mar 27 at 20:14
cnreadcnread
8,97711124
8,97711124
I had no idea this was a normal convention. Thanks!
– Kevin Miller
Mar 27 at 21:20
add a comment |
I had no idea this was a normal convention. Thanks!
– Kevin Miller
Mar 27 at 21:20
I had no idea this was a normal convention. Thanks!
– Kevin Miller
Mar 27 at 21:20
I had no idea this was a normal convention. Thanks!
– Kevin Miller
Mar 27 at 21:20
add a comment |
The future-perfect is a primary tense for something that has still to be completed; "already" would refer to the past. This is a purpose/ final clause therefore, after ut, the present subjunctive is deployed--superem.
answered Mar 27 at 20:28
tonytony
68918
add a comment |
The future-perfect is a primary tense for something that has still to be completed; "already" would refer to the past. This is a purpose/ final clause therefore, after ut, the present subjunctive is deployed--superem.
answered Mar 27 at 20:28
tonytony
68918
add a comment |
The future-perfect is a primary tense for something that has still to be completed; "already" would refer to the past. This is a purpose/ final clause therefore, after ut, the present subjunctive is deployed--superem.
answered Mar 27 at 20:28
tonytony
68918
The future-perfect is a primary tense for something that has still to be completed; "already" would refer to the past. This is a purpose/ final clause therefore, after ut, the present subjunctive is deployed--superem.
answered Mar 27 at 20:28
tonytony
68918
answered Mar 27 at 20:28
tonytony
68918
answered Mar 27 at 20:28
tonytony
68918
answered Mar 27 at 20:28
tonytony
68918
68918
add a comment |
add a comment |
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