Symmetry in quantum mechanicsSymmetry transformations on a quantum system; DefinitionsQuantum mechanics and Lorentz symmetryGenerators of a certain symmetry in Quantum MechanicsEquivalence of symmetry and commuting unitary operatorConcrete example that projective representation of symmetry group occurs in a quantum system except the case of spin half integer?Symmetry transformations on a quantum system; DefinitionsWhat is the definition of parity operator in quantum mechanics?Symmetry of Hamiltonian in harmonic oscillatorDifference between symmetry transformation and basis transformationSymmetries in quantum mechanicsWhat happens to the global $U(1)$ symmetry in alternative formulations of Quantum Mechanics?

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Symmetry in quantum mechanics


Symmetry transformations on a quantum system; DefinitionsQuantum mechanics and Lorentz symmetryGenerators of a certain symmetry in Quantum MechanicsEquivalence of symmetry and commuting unitary operatorConcrete example that projective representation of symmetry group occurs in a quantum system except the case of spin half integer?Symmetry transformations on a quantum system; DefinitionsWhat is the definition of parity operator in quantum mechanics?Symmetry of Hamiltonian in harmonic oscillatorDifference between symmetry transformation and basis transformationSymmetries in quantum mechanicsWhat happens to the global $U(1)$ symmetry in alternative formulations of Quantum Mechanics?













10












$begingroup$


My professor told us that in quantum mechanics a transformation is a symmetry transformation if $$ UH(psi) = HU(psi) $$



Can you give me an easy explanation for this definition?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$
















    10












    $begingroup$


    My professor told us that in quantum mechanics a transformation is a symmetry transformation if $$ UH(psi) = HU(psi) $$



    Can you give me an easy explanation for this definition?










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$














      10












      10








      10


      4



      $begingroup$


      My professor told us that in quantum mechanics a transformation is a symmetry transformation if $$ UH(psi) = HU(psi) $$



      Can you give me an easy explanation for this definition?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      My professor told us that in quantum mechanics a transformation is a symmetry transformation if $$ UH(psi) = HU(psi) $$



      Can you give me an easy explanation for this definition?







      quantum-mechanics operators symmetry hamiltonian commutator






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Apr 8 at 15:09









      Qmechanic

      108k122021255




      108k122021255










      asked Apr 8 at 13:01









      SimoBartzSimoBartz

      1068




      1068




















          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          18












          $begingroup$

          In a context like this, a symmetry is a transformation that converts solutions of the equation(s) of motion to other solutions of the equation(s) of motion.



          In this case, the equation of motion is the Schrödinger equation
          $$
          ihbarfracddtpsi=Hpsi.
          tag1
          $$

          We can multiply both sides of equation (1) by $U$ to get
          $$
          Uihbarfracddtpsi=UHpsi.
          tag2
          $$

          If $UH=HU$ and $U$ is independent of time, then equation (2) may be rewritten as
          $$
          ihbarfracddtUpsi=HUpsi.
          tag3
          $$

          which says that if $psi$ solves equation (1), then so does $Upsi$, so $U$ is a symmetry.




          For a more general definition of symmetry in QM, see



          Symmetry transformations on a quantum system; Definitions






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$








          • 3




            $begingroup$
            This is a good answer but it brings to another question, why do we call symmetry this condition?
            $endgroup$
            – SimoBartz
            Apr 8 at 13:39










          • $begingroup$
            @SimoBartz That's a good question. In a more completely specified model, say with lots of local observables as in quantum field theory, we would require that a symmetry preserve things like the relationships between those observables in space and time. But in the present question, only the Hamiltonian is specified, so there is nothing else to preserve.
            $endgroup$
            – Chiral Anomaly
            Apr 8 at 16:58







          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @SimoBartz, what does the word "symmetry" mean to you? Have you encountered it in other contexts, such as classical mechanics or geometry?
            $endgroup$
            – Vectornaut
            Apr 8 at 21:48










          • $begingroup$
            @Vectornaut What if they answered yes to any of those? What would you say?
            $endgroup$
            – opa
            Apr 9 at 17:01










          • $begingroup$
            Actually I'have never seen this concept before, my professor told us that when you have a symmetry transformation the system is invariant respect to that transformation. I imagine it means that nothing changes except the point of view. But if I transform a solution in another one maybe the new solution is completely different
            $endgroup$
            – SimoBartz
            Apr 10 at 12:54



















          0












          $begingroup$

          What you have written there is nothing but the commutator. Consider for example the time evolution operator beginalign*
          Uleft(t-t_0right)=e^-ileft(t-t_0right) H
          endalign*

          If $psileft(xi_1, dots, xi_N ; t_0right)$ is the wave function at time $t_0$ and $U(t−t0)$ is the time evolution operator that for all permutations $P$ satisfies
          $left[Uleft(t-t_0right), Pright]=0$
          then also
          $$left(P Uleft(t-t_0right) psiright)left(xi_1, ldots, xi_N ; t_0right)=left(Uleft(t-t_0right) P psiright)left(xi_1, ldots, xi_N ; t_0right)$$
          This means that the permuted time evolved wave function is the same as the time evolved permuted wave function.



          Another example would be if you consider identical particles. An arbitrary observable $A$ should be the same under the permutation operator $P$ if one has identical particles. This is to say:
          beginalign*
          [A, P]=0
          endalign*

          for all $Pin S_N$ (in permutation group of $N$ particles).






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













            Your Answer








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            2 Answers
            2






            active

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            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes









            18












            $begingroup$

            In a context like this, a symmetry is a transformation that converts solutions of the equation(s) of motion to other solutions of the equation(s) of motion.



            In this case, the equation of motion is the Schrödinger equation
            $$
            ihbarfracddtpsi=Hpsi.
            tag1
            $$

            We can multiply both sides of equation (1) by $U$ to get
            $$
            Uihbarfracddtpsi=UHpsi.
            tag2
            $$

            If $UH=HU$ and $U$ is independent of time, then equation (2) may be rewritten as
            $$
            ihbarfracddtUpsi=HUpsi.
            tag3
            $$

            which says that if $psi$ solves equation (1), then so does $Upsi$, so $U$ is a symmetry.




            For a more general definition of symmetry in QM, see



            Symmetry transformations on a quantum system; Definitions






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$








            • 3




              $begingroup$
              This is a good answer but it brings to another question, why do we call symmetry this condition?
              $endgroup$
              – SimoBartz
              Apr 8 at 13:39










            • $begingroup$
              @SimoBartz That's a good question. In a more completely specified model, say with lots of local observables as in quantum field theory, we would require that a symmetry preserve things like the relationships between those observables in space and time. But in the present question, only the Hamiltonian is specified, so there is nothing else to preserve.
              $endgroup$
              – Chiral Anomaly
              Apr 8 at 16:58







            • 1




              $begingroup$
              @SimoBartz, what does the word "symmetry" mean to you? Have you encountered it in other contexts, such as classical mechanics or geometry?
              $endgroup$
              – Vectornaut
              Apr 8 at 21:48










            • $begingroup$
              @Vectornaut What if they answered yes to any of those? What would you say?
              $endgroup$
              – opa
              Apr 9 at 17:01










            • $begingroup$
              Actually I'have never seen this concept before, my professor told us that when you have a symmetry transformation the system is invariant respect to that transformation. I imagine it means that nothing changes except the point of view. But if I transform a solution in another one maybe the new solution is completely different
              $endgroup$
              – SimoBartz
              Apr 10 at 12:54
















            18












            $begingroup$

            In a context like this, a symmetry is a transformation that converts solutions of the equation(s) of motion to other solutions of the equation(s) of motion.



            In this case, the equation of motion is the Schrödinger equation
            $$
            ihbarfracddtpsi=Hpsi.
            tag1
            $$

            We can multiply both sides of equation (1) by $U$ to get
            $$
            Uihbarfracddtpsi=UHpsi.
            tag2
            $$

            If $UH=HU$ and $U$ is independent of time, then equation (2) may be rewritten as
            $$
            ihbarfracddtUpsi=HUpsi.
            tag3
            $$

            which says that if $psi$ solves equation (1), then so does $Upsi$, so $U$ is a symmetry.




            For a more general definition of symmetry in QM, see



            Symmetry transformations on a quantum system; Definitions






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$








            • 3




              $begingroup$
              This is a good answer but it brings to another question, why do we call symmetry this condition?
              $endgroup$
              – SimoBartz
              Apr 8 at 13:39










            • $begingroup$
              @SimoBartz That's a good question. In a more completely specified model, say with lots of local observables as in quantum field theory, we would require that a symmetry preserve things like the relationships between those observables in space and time. But in the present question, only the Hamiltonian is specified, so there is nothing else to preserve.
              $endgroup$
              – Chiral Anomaly
              Apr 8 at 16:58







            • 1




              $begingroup$
              @SimoBartz, what does the word "symmetry" mean to you? Have you encountered it in other contexts, such as classical mechanics or geometry?
              $endgroup$
              – Vectornaut
              Apr 8 at 21:48










            • $begingroup$
              @Vectornaut What if they answered yes to any of those? What would you say?
              $endgroup$
              – opa
              Apr 9 at 17:01










            • $begingroup$
              Actually I'have never seen this concept before, my professor told us that when you have a symmetry transformation the system is invariant respect to that transformation. I imagine it means that nothing changes except the point of view. But if I transform a solution in another one maybe the new solution is completely different
              $endgroup$
              – SimoBartz
              Apr 10 at 12:54














            18












            18








            18





            $begingroup$

            In a context like this, a symmetry is a transformation that converts solutions of the equation(s) of motion to other solutions of the equation(s) of motion.



            In this case, the equation of motion is the Schrödinger equation
            $$
            ihbarfracddtpsi=Hpsi.
            tag1
            $$

            We can multiply both sides of equation (1) by $U$ to get
            $$
            Uihbarfracddtpsi=UHpsi.
            tag2
            $$

            If $UH=HU$ and $U$ is independent of time, then equation (2) may be rewritten as
            $$
            ihbarfracddtUpsi=HUpsi.
            tag3
            $$

            which says that if $psi$ solves equation (1), then so does $Upsi$, so $U$ is a symmetry.




            For a more general definition of symmetry in QM, see



            Symmetry transformations on a quantum system; Definitions






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



            In a context like this, a symmetry is a transformation that converts solutions of the equation(s) of motion to other solutions of the equation(s) of motion.



            In this case, the equation of motion is the Schrödinger equation
            $$
            ihbarfracddtpsi=Hpsi.
            tag1
            $$

            We can multiply both sides of equation (1) by $U$ to get
            $$
            Uihbarfracddtpsi=UHpsi.
            tag2
            $$

            If $UH=HU$ and $U$ is independent of time, then equation (2) may be rewritten as
            $$
            ihbarfracddtUpsi=HUpsi.
            tag3
            $$

            which says that if $psi$ solves equation (1), then so does $Upsi$, so $U$ is a symmetry.




            For a more general definition of symmetry in QM, see



            Symmetry transformations on a quantum system; Definitions







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Apr 8 at 13:12









            Chiral AnomalyChiral Anomaly

            14.6k22048




            14.6k22048







            • 3




              $begingroup$
              This is a good answer but it brings to another question, why do we call symmetry this condition?
              $endgroup$
              – SimoBartz
              Apr 8 at 13:39










            • $begingroup$
              @SimoBartz That's a good question. In a more completely specified model, say with lots of local observables as in quantum field theory, we would require that a symmetry preserve things like the relationships between those observables in space and time. But in the present question, only the Hamiltonian is specified, so there is nothing else to preserve.
              $endgroup$
              – Chiral Anomaly
              Apr 8 at 16:58







            • 1




              $begingroup$
              @SimoBartz, what does the word "symmetry" mean to you? Have you encountered it in other contexts, such as classical mechanics or geometry?
              $endgroup$
              – Vectornaut
              Apr 8 at 21:48










            • $begingroup$
              @Vectornaut What if they answered yes to any of those? What would you say?
              $endgroup$
              – opa
              Apr 9 at 17:01










            • $begingroup$
              Actually I'have never seen this concept before, my professor told us that when you have a symmetry transformation the system is invariant respect to that transformation. I imagine it means that nothing changes except the point of view. But if I transform a solution in another one maybe the new solution is completely different
              $endgroup$
              – SimoBartz
              Apr 10 at 12:54













            • 3




              $begingroup$
              This is a good answer but it brings to another question, why do we call symmetry this condition?
              $endgroup$
              – SimoBartz
              Apr 8 at 13:39










            • $begingroup$
              @SimoBartz That's a good question. In a more completely specified model, say with lots of local observables as in quantum field theory, we would require that a symmetry preserve things like the relationships between those observables in space and time. But in the present question, only the Hamiltonian is specified, so there is nothing else to preserve.
              $endgroup$
              – Chiral Anomaly
              Apr 8 at 16:58







            • 1




              $begingroup$
              @SimoBartz, what does the word "symmetry" mean to you? Have you encountered it in other contexts, such as classical mechanics or geometry?
              $endgroup$
              – Vectornaut
              Apr 8 at 21:48










            • $begingroup$
              @Vectornaut What if they answered yes to any of those? What would you say?
              $endgroup$
              – opa
              Apr 9 at 17:01










            • $begingroup$
              Actually I'have never seen this concept before, my professor told us that when you have a symmetry transformation the system is invariant respect to that transformation. I imagine it means that nothing changes except the point of view. But if I transform a solution in another one maybe the new solution is completely different
              $endgroup$
              – SimoBartz
              Apr 10 at 12:54








            3




            3




            $begingroup$
            This is a good answer but it brings to another question, why do we call symmetry this condition?
            $endgroup$
            – SimoBartz
            Apr 8 at 13:39




            $begingroup$
            This is a good answer but it brings to another question, why do we call symmetry this condition?
            $endgroup$
            – SimoBartz
            Apr 8 at 13:39












            $begingroup$
            @SimoBartz That's a good question. In a more completely specified model, say with lots of local observables as in quantum field theory, we would require that a symmetry preserve things like the relationships between those observables in space and time. But in the present question, only the Hamiltonian is specified, so there is nothing else to preserve.
            $endgroup$
            – Chiral Anomaly
            Apr 8 at 16:58





            $begingroup$
            @SimoBartz That's a good question. In a more completely specified model, say with lots of local observables as in quantum field theory, we would require that a symmetry preserve things like the relationships between those observables in space and time. But in the present question, only the Hamiltonian is specified, so there is nothing else to preserve.
            $endgroup$
            – Chiral Anomaly
            Apr 8 at 16:58





            1




            1




            $begingroup$
            @SimoBartz, what does the word "symmetry" mean to you? Have you encountered it in other contexts, such as classical mechanics or geometry?
            $endgroup$
            – Vectornaut
            Apr 8 at 21:48




            $begingroup$
            @SimoBartz, what does the word "symmetry" mean to you? Have you encountered it in other contexts, such as classical mechanics or geometry?
            $endgroup$
            – Vectornaut
            Apr 8 at 21:48












            $begingroup$
            @Vectornaut What if they answered yes to any of those? What would you say?
            $endgroup$
            – opa
            Apr 9 at 17:01




            $begingroup$
            @Vectornaut What if they answered yes to any of those? What would you say?
            $endgroup$
            – opa
            Apr 9 at 17:01












            $begingroup$
            Actually I'have never seen this concept before, my professor told us that when you have a symmetry transformation the system is invariant respect to that transformation. I imagine it means that nothing changes except the point of view. But if I transform a solution in another one maybe the new solution is completely different
            $endgroup$
            – SimoBartz
            Apr 10 at 12:54





            $begingroup$
            Actually I'have never seen this concept before, my professor told us that when you have a symmetry transformation the system is invariant respect to that transformation. I imagine it means that nothing changes except the point of view. But if I transform a solution in another one maybe the new solution is completely different
            $endgroup$
            – SimoBartz
            Apr 10 at 12:54












            0












            $begingroup$

            What you have written there is nothing but the commutator. Consider for example the time evolution operator beginalign*
            Uleft(t-t_0right)=e^-ileft(t-t_0right) H
            endalign*

            If $psileft(xi_1, dots, xi_N ; t_0right)$ is the wave function at time $t_0$ and $U(t−t0)$ is the time evolution operator that for all permutations $P$ satisfies
            $left[Uleft(t-t_0right), Pright]=0$
            then also
            $$left(P Uleft(t-t_0right) psiright)left(xi_1, ldots, xi_N ; t_0right)=left(Uleft(t-t_0right) P psiright)left(xi_1, ldots, xi_N ; t_0right)$$
            This means that the permuted time evolved wave function is the same as the time evolved permuted wave function.



            Another example would be if you consider identical particles. An arbitrary observable $A$ should be the same under the permutation operator $P$ if one has identical particles. This is to say:
            beginalign*
            [A, P]=0
            endalign*

            for all $Pin S_N$ (in permutation group of $N$ particles).






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$

















              0












              $begingroup$

              What you have written there is nothing but the commutator. Consider for example the time evolution operator beginalign*
              Uleft(t-t_0right)=e^-ileft(t-t_0right) H
              endalign*

              If $psileft(xi_1, dots, xi_N ; t_0right)$ is the wave function at time $t_0$ and $U(t−t0)$ is the time evolution operator that for all permutations $P$ satisfies
              $left[Uleft(t-t_0right), Pright]=0$
              then also
              $$left(P Uleft(t-t_0right) psiright)left(xi_1, ldots, xi_N ; t_0right)=left(Uleft(t-t_0right) P psiright)left(xi_1, ldots, xi_N ; t_0right)$$
              This means that the permuted time evolved wave function is the same as the time evolved permuted wave function.



              Another example would be if you consider identical particles. An arbitrary observable $A$ should be the same under the permutation operator $P$ if one has identical particles. This is to say:
              beginalign*
              [A, P]=0
              endalign*

              for all $Pin S_N$ (in permutation group of $N$ particles).






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$















                0












                0








                0





                $begingroup$

                What you have written there is nothing but the commutator. Consider for example the time evolution operator beginalign*
                Uleft(t-t_0right)=e^-ileft(t-t_0right) H
                endalign*

                If $psileft(xi_1, dots, xi_N ; t_0right)$ is the wave function at time $t_0$ and $U(t−t0)$ is the time evolution operator that for all permutations $P$ satisfies
                $left[Uleft(t-t_0right), Pright]=0$
                then also
                $$left(P Uleft(t-t_0right) psiright)left(xi_1, ldots, xi_N ; t_0right)=left(Uleft(t-t_0right) P psiright)left(xi_1, ldots, xi_N ; t_0right)$$
                This means that the permuted time evolved wave function is the same as the time evolved permuted wave function.



                Another example would be if you consider identical particles. An arbitrary observable $A$ should be the same under the permutation operator $P$ if one has identical particles. This is to say:
                beginalign*
                [A, P]=0
                endalign*

                for all $Pin S_N$ (in permutation group of $N$ particles).






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                What you have written there is nothing but the commutator. Consider for example the time evolution operator beginalign*
                Uleft(t-t_0right)=e^-ileft(t-t_0right) H
                endalign*

                If $psileft(xi_1, dots, xi_N ; t_0right)$ is the wave function at time $t_0$ and $U(t−t0)$ is the time evolution operator that for all permutations $P$ satisfies
                $left[Uleft(t-t_0right), Pright]=0$
                then also
                $$left(P Uleft(t-t_0right) psiright)left(xi_1, ldots, xi_N ; t_0right)=left(Uleft(t-t_0right) P psiright)left(xi_1, ldots, xi_N ; t_0right)$$
                This means that the permuted time evolved wave function is the same as the time evolved permuted wave function.



                Another example would be if you consider identical particles. An arbitrary observable $A$ should be the same under the permutation operator $P$ if one has identical particles. This is to say:
                beginalign*
                [A, P]=0
                endalign*

                for all $Pin S_N$ (in permutation group of $N$ particles).







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Apr 8 at 13:18









                LeviathanLeviathan

                817




                817



























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