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Meaning of this notion in 0-1 loss?


Prove Reccurrent Neural Network can exhibit oscillatory behaviorPerformance and architecture of neural network for increased dimensionsReinforcement learning: understanding this derivation of n-step Tree Backup algorithmUsing ML to create unique descriptors?L2 loss vs. mean squared lossAn unbiased simulator for policy simulation in reinforcement learningIs it possible to use NEAT networks for solving video games?Why is my loss function for DQN converging too quickly?Why Gradient methods work in finding the parameters in Neural Networks?Splitting image dataset with few subjects but many data













1












$begingroup$


I am reading a paper and encountered this notion:



$$1_Y=1$$



To me it seems to be the expression as below, but I am not entirely sure and I don't think the author explictly explained it:



if Y==1:
return 1
else:
return 0


Can someone help me to clarify this notion? Much thanks for your time (:




It appears in:



https://papers.nips.cc/paper/5073-learning-with-noisy-labels.pdf



weighted 0-1 loss










share|improve this question









New contributor




J. Doe is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    Your assumption is right.
    $endgroup$
    – Alireza Zolanvari
    Mar 20 at 10:19















1












$begingroup$


I am reading a paper and encountered this notion:



$$1_Y=1$$



To me it seems to be the expression as below, but I am not entirely sure and I don't think the author explictly explained it:



if Y==1:
return 1
else:
return 0


Can someone help me to clarify this notion? Much thanks for your time (:




It appears in:



https://papers.nips.cc/paper/5073-learning-with-noisy-labels.pdf



weighted 0-1 loss










share|improve this question









New contributor




J. Doe is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    Your assumption is right.
    $endgroup$
    – Alireza Zolanvari
    Mar 20 at 10:19













1












1








1





$begingroup$


I am reading a paper and encountered this notion:



$$1_Y=1$$



To me it seems to be the expression as below, but I am not entirely sure and I don't think the author explictly explained it:



if Y==1:
return 1
else:
return 0


Can someone help me to clarify this notion? Much thanks for your time (:




It appears in:



https://papers.nips.cc/paper/5073-learning-with-noisy-labels.pdf



weighted 0-1 loss










share|improve this question









New contributor




J. Doe is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







$endgroup$




I am reading a paper and encountered this notion:



$$1_Y=1$$



To me it seems to be the expression as below, but I am not entirely sure and I don't think the author explictly explained it:



if Y==1:
return 1
else:
return 0


Can someone help me to clarify this notion? Much thanks for your time (:




It appears in:



https://papers.nips.cc/paper/5073-learning-with-noisy-labels.pdf



weighted 0-1 loss







machine-learning loss-function math






share|improve this question









New contributor




J. Doe is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











share|improve this question









New contributor




J. Doe is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









share|improve this question




share|improve this question








edited Mar 20 at 11:57









Siong Thye Goh

1,387519




1,387519






New contributor




J. Doe is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









asked Mar 20 at 9:49









J. DoeJ. Doe

82




82




New contributor




J. Doe is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.





New contributor





J. Doe is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.






J. Doe is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











  • $begingroup$
    Your assumption is right.
    $endgroup$
    – Alireza Zolanvari
    Mar 20 at 10:19
















  • $begingroup$
    Your assumption is right.
    $endgroup$
    – Alireza Zolanvari
    Mar 20 at 10:19















$begingroup$
Your assumption is right.
$endgroup$
– Alireza Zolanvari
Mar 20 at 10:19




$begingroup$
Your assumption is right.
$endgroup$
– Alireza Zolanvari
Mar 20 at 10:19










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















2












$begingroup$

Your understanding is correct.



This is known as the indicator function.



The indicator function of a subset $A$ of a set $X$ is a function



$$1_A(x)= begincases1, & x in A \ 0, & x notin A endcases$$






share|improve this answer









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Also since both $I_Y=1$ and $I_y=1$ are present in the question. It is worth noting that $Z=I_Y=1$ is a random variable like $Z=2Y$ with a distribution, unlike $f(y)=I_y=1$ which is a function with no distribution.
    $endgroup$
    – Esmailian
    Mar 20 at 13:04










Your Answer





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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









2












$begingroup$

Your understanding is correct.



This is known as the indicator function.



The indicator function of a subset $A$ of a set $X$ is a function



$$1_A(x)= begincases1, & x in A \ 0, & x notin A endcases$$






share|improve this answer









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Also since both $I_Y=1$ and $I_y=1$ are present in the question. It is worth noting that $Z=I_Y=1$ is a random variable like $Z=2Y$ with a distribution, unlike $f(y)=I_y=1$ which is a function with no distribution.
    $endgroup$
    – Esmailian
    Mar 20 at 13:04















2












$begingroup$

Your understanding is correct.



This is known as the indicator function.



The indicator function of a subset $A$ of a set $X$ is a function



$$1_A(x)= begincases1, & x in A \ 0, & x notin A endcases$$






share|improve this answer









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Also since both $I_Y=1$ and $I_y=1$ are present in the question. It is worth noting that $Z=I_Y=1$ is a random variable like $Z=2Y$ with a distribution, unlike $f(y)=I_y=1$ which is a function with no distribution.
    $endgroup$
    – Esmailian
    Mar 20 at 13:04













2












2








2





$begingroup$

Your understanding is correct.



This is known as the indicator function.



The indicator function of a subset $A$ of a set $X$ is a function



$$1_A(x)= begincases1, & x in A \ 0, & x notin A endcases$$






share|improve this answer









$endgroup$



Your understanding is correct.



This is known as the indicator function.



The indicator function of a subset $A$ of a set $X$ is a function



$$1_A(x)= begincases1, & x in A \ 0, & x notin A endcases$$







share|improve this answer












share|improve this answer



share|improve this answer










answered Mar 20 at 11:56









Siong Thye GohSiong Thye Goh

1,387519




1,387519











  • $begingroup$
    Also since both $I_Y=1$ and $I_y=1$ are present in the question. It is worth noting that $Z=I_Y=1$ is a random variable like $Z=2Y$ with a distribution, unlike $f(y)=I_y=1$ which is a function with no distribution.
    $endgroup$
    – Esmailian
    Mar 20 at 13:04
















  • $begingroup$
    Also since both $I_Y=1$ and $I_y=1$ are present in the question. It is worth noting that $Z=I_Y=1$ is a random variable like $Z=2Y$ with a distribution, unlike $f(y)=I_y=1$ which is a function with no distribution.
    $endgroup$
    – Esmailian
    Mar 20 at 13:04















$begingroup$
Also since both $I_Y=1$ and $I_y=1$ are present in the question. It is worth noting that $Z=I_Y=1$ is a random variable like $Z=2Y$ with a distribution, unlike $f(y)=I_y=1$ which is a function with no distribution.
$endgroup$
– Esmailian
Mar 20 at 13:04




$begingroup$
Also since both $I_Y=1$ and $I_y=1$ are present in the question. It is worth noting that $Z=I_Y=1$ is a random variable like $Z=2Y$ with a distribution, unlike $f(y)=I_y=1$ which is a function with no distribution.
$endgroup$
– Esmailian
Mar 20 at 13:04










J. Doe is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.









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J. Doe is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.











J. Doe is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.














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