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Pauli exclusion principle


Pauli exclusion principle and resonanceIs there an energy cost associated with flipping the spin of an electron?Pauli's Exclusion PrincipleCan two electron occupy the same spatial spot in a statistical way?Is there any connection between “static correlation” and the Born-Oppenheimer approximation?MO Theory: Why do hydrogen and lithium bond, but hydrogen and helium don't?How to derive Pauli Exclusion Principle without assuming anti-symmetry?Total irreducible representation of a quantum system - Slater determinant?How do restricted open shell calculations mathematically proceed in the context of the self consistent field iterations?Relationship between the 2nd theorem of Hohenberg and Kohn and the Variational Principle













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$begingroup$


Pauli exclusion principle states that 'No two electron can exist in same state'or 'No two electron can have same set of quantum numbers'.
But in reality there is no state of electron. The state is of whole system which is composed of Many electron.It is our approximation that each electron is described by a single wave-function which we call Spin orbital. So what does that statement even mean in reality?
Quantum numbers is only exact for hydrogen atom. What does quantum number even mean for a electron in a many electron system.










share|improve this question







New contributor




LOKHANDE RUGWED is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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$endgroup$
















    4












    $begingroup$


    Pauli exclusion principle states that 'No two electron can exist in same state'or 'No two electron can have same set of quantum numbers'.
    But in reality there is no state of electron. The state is of whole system which is composed of Many electron.It is our approximation that each electron is described by a single wave-function which we call Spin orbital. So what does that statement even mean in reality?
    Quantum numbers is only exact for hydrogen atom. What does quantum number even mean for a electron in a many electron system.










    share|improve this question







    New contributor




    LOKHANDE RUGWED is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
    Check out our Code of Conduct.







    $endgroup$














      4












      4








      4





      $begingroup$


      Pauli exclusion principle states that 'No two electron can exist in same state'or 'No two electron can have same set of quantum numbers'.
      But in reality there is no state of electron. The state is of whole system which is composed of Many electron.It is our approximation that each electron is described by a single wave-function which we call Spin orbital. So what does that statement even mean in reality?
      Quantum numbers is only exact for hydrogen atom. What does quantum number even mean for a electron in a many electron system.










      share|improve this question







      New contributor




      LOKHANDE RUGWED is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.







      $endgroup$




      Pauli exclusion principle states that 'No two electron can exist in same state'or 'No two electron can have same set of quantum numbers'.
      But in reality there is no state of electron. The state is of whole system which is composed of Many electron.It is our approximation that each electron is described by a single wave-function which we call Spin orbital. So what does that statement even mean in reality?
      Quantum numbers is only exact for hydrogen atom. What does quantum number even mean for a electron in a many electron system.







      physical-chemistry quantum-chemistry molecular-orbital-theory theoretical-chemistry






      share|improve this question







      New contributor




      LOKHANDE RUGWED is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.











      share|improve this question







      New contributor




      LOKHANDE RUGWED is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.









      share|improve this question




      share|improve this question






      New contributor




      LOKHANDE RUGWED is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.









      asked 9 hours ago









      LOKHANDE RUGWEDLOKHANDE RUGWED

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      New contributor





      LOKHANDE RUGWED is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.






      LOKHANDE RUGWED is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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          1 Answer
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          Wikipedia has the correct definition:




          A more rigorous statement is that with respect to exchange of two identical particles the total wave function is antisymmetric for fermions, and symmetric for bosons. This means that if the space and spin co-ordinates of two identical particles are interchanged, then the wave function changes its sign for fermions and does not change for bosons.




          The textbook shorthand you quote, 'No two electron can have same set of quantum numbers', only makes sense when you are using the one-electron approximation. As you move beyond that approximation, you also have to move beyond this shorthand definition.






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            1 Answer
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            active

            oldest

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            7












            $begingroup$

            Wikipedia has the correct definition:




            A more rigorous statement is that with respect to exchange of two identical particles the total wave function is antisymmetric for fermions, and symmetric for bosons. This means that if the space and spin co-ordinates of two identical particles are interchanged, then the wave function changes its sign for fermions and does not change for bosons.




            The textbook shorthand you quote, 'No two electron can have same set of quantum numbers', only makes sense when you are using the one-electron approximation. As you move beyond that approximation, you also have to move beyond this shorthand definition.






            share|improve this answer









            $endgroup$

















              7












              $begingroup$

              Wikipedia has the correct definition:




              A more rigorous statement is that with respect to exchange of two identical particles the total wave function is antisymmetric for fermions, and symmetric for bosons. This means that if the space and spin co-ordinates of two identical particles are interchanged, then the wave function changes its sign for fermions and does not change for bosons.




              The textbook shorthand you quote, 'No two electron can have same set of quantum numbers', only makes sense when you are using the one-electron approximation. As you move beyond that approximation, you also have to move beyond this shorthand definition.






              share|improve this answer









              $endgroup$















                7












                7








                7





                $begingroup$

                Wikipedia has the correct definition:




                A more rigorous statement is that with respect to exchange of two identical particles the total wave function is antisymmetric for fermions, and symmetric for bosons. This means that if the space and spin co-ordinates of two identical particles are interchanged, then the wave function changes its sign for fermions and does not change for bosons.




                The textbook shorthand you quote, 'No two electron can have same set of quantum numbers', only makes sense when you are using the one-electron approximation. As you move beyond that approximation, you also have to move beyond this shorthand definition.






                share|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                Wikipedia has the correct definition:




                A more rigorous statement is that with respect to exchange of two identical particles the total wave function is antisymmetric for fermions, and symmetric for bosons. This means that if the space and spin co-ordinates of two identical particles are interchanged, then the wave function changes its sign for fermions and does not change for bosons.




                The textbook shorthand you quote, 'No two electron can have same set of quantum numbers', only makes sense when you are using the one-electron approximation. As you move beyond that approximation, you also have to move beyond this shorthand definition.







                share|improve this answer












                share|improve this answer



                share|improve this answer










                answered 5 hours ago









                Karsten TheisKarsten Theis

                2,843434




                2,843434




















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