Does the average primeness of natural numbers tend to zero?Pascal Triangle and Prime NumbersWhat might the (normalized) pair correlation function of prime numbers look like?On prime numbersErdos Kac for imaginary class numberAKS Algorithm PseudoprimesThe conjecture of Montgomery and Soundararajan on primes in short intervals: Empirical inconsistencies?On the number of consecutive divisors of an integerOn the conjectured nonexistence of even almost perfect numbers (other than powers of two) and odd perfect numbersDoes this bound on an average over character sums have a more direct proof?Riemann sum formula for definite integral using prime numbers

Does the average primeness of natural numbers tend to zero?


Pascal Triangle and Prime NumbersWhat might the (normalized) pair correlation function of prime numbers look like?On prime numbersErdos Kac for imaginary class numberAKS Algorithm PseudoprimesThe conjecture of Montgomery and Soundararajan on primes in short intervals: Empirical inconsistencies?On the number of consecutive divisors of an integerOn the conjectured nonexistence of even almost perfect numbers (other than powers of two) and odd perfect numbersDoes this bound on an average over character sums have a more direct proof?Riemann sum formula for definite integral using prime numbers













21












$begingroup$


This question was posted in MSE. It got many upvotes but no answer hence posting it in MO.




A number is either prime or composite, hence primality is a binary concept. Instead I wanted to put a value of primality to every number using some function $f$ such that $f(n) = 1$ iff $n$ is a prime otherwise, $0 < f(n) < 1$ and as the number divisors of $n$ increases, $f(n)$ decreases on average. Thus $f(n)$ is a measure of the degree of primeness of $n$ where 1 is a perfect prime and 0 is a hypothetical perfect composite. Hence $frac1Nsum_r le N f(r)$ can be interpreted as a the average primeness of the first $N$ integers.



After trying several definitions and going through the ones in literature, I came up with:




Define $f(n) = dfrac2s_nn-1$ for $n ge 2$, where $s_n$ is the
standard deviation of the divisors of $n$.




One reason for using standard deviation was that I was already studying the distribution of the divisors of a number.



Question 1: Does the average primeness tend to zero? i.e. does the following hold?



$$
lim_N to infty frac1Nsum_r = 2^N f(r) = 0
$$



Question 2: Is $f(n)$ injective over composites? i.e., do there exist composites $3 < m < n$ such that $f(m) = f(n)$?




My progress




  • $f(4.35times 10^8) approx 0.5919$ and decreasing so the limit if it exists must be between 0 and 0.5919.

  • For $2 le i le n$, computed data shows that the minimum value of $f(i)$ occurs at the largest highly composite number $le n$.

Note: Here standard deviation of $x_1, x_2, ldots , x_n$ is defined as $sqrt fracsum_i=1^n (x-x_i)^2n$. Also notice that even if we define standard deviation as $sqrt fracsum_i=1^n (x-x_i)^2n-1$ our questions remain unaffected because in this case in the definition of $f$, we will be multiplying with $sqrt 2$ instead of $2$ to normalize $f$ in the interval $(0,1)$.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    From the linked question it seems that $s_n$ grows faster than $n$ so that $f(n)$ doesn't go to zero.
    $endgroup$
    – lcv
    Apr 8 at 10:18






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @lcv No $s_n$ doesn't grow faster than $n$. What are you looking at?
    $endgroup$
    – Nilos
    Apr 8 at 10:27






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    "...I wanted to have a continuous function...". In what topology is $f$ continuous? If you put discrete topology on natural numbers, then any function is continuous so you probably have something else in mind.
    $endgroup$
    – Aknazar Kazhymurat
    Apr 8 at 13:56










  • $begingroup$
    I have verified that $f$ is injective over composites less than 10,000,000.
    $endgroup$
    – Matt F.
    Apr 8 at 14:00










  • $begingroup$
    @AknazarKazhymurat I have reworded that line. Hope it is clearer now?
    $endgroup$
    – Nilos
    Apr 8 at 14:02















21












$begingroup$


This question was posted in MSE. It got many upvotes but no answer hence posting it in MO.




A number is either prime or composite, hence primality is a binary concept. Instead I wanted to put a value of primality to every number using some function $f$ such that $f(n) = 1$ iff $n$ is a prime otherwise, $0 < f(n) < 1$ and as the number divisors of $n$ increases, $f(n)$ decreases on average. Thus $f(n)$ is a measure of the degree of primeness of $n$ where 1 is a perfect prime and 0 is a hypothetical perfect composite. Hence $frac1Nsum_r le N f(r)$ can be interpreted as a the average primeness of the first $N$ integers.



After trying several definitions and going through the ones in literature, I came up with:




Define $f(n) = dfrac2s_nn-1$ for $n ge 2$, where $s_n$ is the
standard deviation of the divisors of $n$.




One reason for using standard deviation was that I was already studying the distribution of the divisors of a number.



Question 1: Does the average primeness tend to zero? i.e. does the following hold?



$$
lim_N to infty frac1Nsum_r = 2^N f(r) = 0
$$



Question 2: Is $f(n)$ injective over composites? i.e., do there exist composites $3 < m < n$ such that $f(m) = f(n)$?




My progress




  • $f(4.35times 10^8) approx 0.5919$ and decreasing so the limit if it exists must be between 0 and 0.5919.

  • For $2 le i le n$, computed data shows that the minimum value of $f(i)$ occurs at the largest highly composite number $le n$.

Note: Here standard deviation of $x_1, x_2, ldots , x_n$ is defined as $sqrt fracsum_i=1^n (x-x_i)^2n$. Also notice that even if we define standard deviation as $sqrt fracsum_i=1^n (x-x_i)^2n-1$ our questions remain unaffected because in this case in the definition of $f$, we will be multiplying with $sqrt 2$ instead of $2$ to normalize $f$ in the interval $(0,1)$.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    From the linked question it seems that $s_n$ grows faster than $n$ so that $f(n)$ doesn't go to zero.
    $endgroup$
    – lcv
    Apr 8 at 10:18






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @lcv No $s_n$ doesn't grow faster than $n$. What are you looking at?
    $endgroup$
    – Nilos
    Apr 8 at 10:27






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    "...I wanted to have a continuous function...". In what topology is $f$ continuous? If you put discrete topology on natural numbers, then any function is continuous so you probably have something else in mind.
    $endgroup$
    – Aknazar Kazhymurat
    Apr 8 at 13:56










  • $begingroup$
    I have verified that $f$ is injective over composites less than 10,000,000.
    $endgroup$
    – Matt F.
    Apr 8 at 14:00










  • $begingroup$
    @AknazarKazhymurat I have reworded that line. Hope it is clearer now?
    $endgroup$
    – Nilos
    Apr 8 at 14:02













21












21








21


9



$begingroup$


This question was posted in MSE. It got many upvotes but no answer hence posting it in MO.




A number is either prime or composite, hence primality is a binary concept. Instead I wanted to put a value of primality to every number using some function $f$ such that $f(n) = 1$ iff $n$ is a prime otherwise, $0 < f(n) < 1$ and as the number divisors of $n$ increases, $f(n)$ decreases on average. Thus $f(n)$ is a measure of the degree of primeness of $n$ where 1 is a perfect prime and 0 is a hypothetical perfect composite. Hence $frac1Nsum_r le N f(r)$ can be interpreted as a the average primeness of the first $N$ integers.



After trying several definitions and going through the ones in literature, I came up with:




Define $f(n) = dfrac2s_nn-1$ for $n ge 2$, where $s_n$ is the
standard deviation of the divisors of $n$.




One reason for using standard deviation was that I was already studying the distribution of the divisors of a number.



Question 1: Does the average primeness tend to zero? i.e. does the following hold?



$$
lim_N to infty frac1Nsum_r = 2^N f(r) = 0
$$



Question 2: Is $f(n)$ injective over composites? i.e., do there exist composites $3 < m < n$ such that $f(m) = f(n)$?




My progress




  • $f(4.35times 10^8) approx 0.5919$ and decreasing so the limit if it exists must be between 0 and 0.5919.

  • For $2 le i le n$, computed data shows that the minimum value of $f(i)$ occurs at the largest highly composite number $le n$.

Note: Here standard deviation of $x_1, x_2, ldots , x_n$ is defined as $sqrt fracsum_i=1^n (x-x_i)^2n$. Also notice that even if we define standard deviation as $sqrt fracsum_i=1^n (x-x_i)^2n-1$ our questions remain unaffected because in this case in the definition of $f$, we will be multiplying with $sqrt 2$ instead of $2$ to normalize $f$ in the interval $(0,1)$.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




This question was posted in MSE. It got many upvotes but no answer hence posting it in MO.




A number is either prime or composite, hence primality is a binary concept. Instead I wanted to put a value of primality to every number using some function $f$ such that $f(n) = 1$ iff $n$ is a prime otherwise, $0 < f(n) < 1$ and as the number divisors of $n$ increases, $f(n)$ decreases on average. Thus $f(n)$ is a measure of the degree of primeness of $n$ where 1 is a perfect prime and 0 is a hypothetical perfect composite. Hence $frac1Nsum_r le N f(r)$ can be interpreted as a the average primeness of the first $N$ integers.



After trying several definitions and going through the ones in literature, I came up with:




Define $f(n) = dfrac2s_nn-1$ for $n ge 2$, where $s_n$ is the
standard deviation of the divisors of $n$.




One reason for using standard deviation was that I was already studying the distribution of the divisors of a number.



Question 1: Does the average primeness tend to zero? i.e. does the following hold?



$$
lim_N to infty frac1Nsum_r = 2^N f(r) = 0
$$



Question 2: Is $f(n)$ injective over composites? i.e., do there exist composites $3 < m < n$ such that $f(m) = f(n)$?




My progress




  • $f(4.35times 10^8) approx 0.5919$ and decreasing so the limit if it exists must be between 0 and 0.5919.

  • For $2 le i le n$, computed data shows that the minimum value of $f(i)$ occurs at the largest highly composite number $le n$.

Note: Here standard deviation of $x_1, x_2, ldots , x_n$ is defined as $sqrt fracsum_i=1^n (x-x_i)^2n$. Also notice that even if we define standard deviation as $sqrt fracsum_i=1^n (x-x_i)^2n-1$ our questions remain unaffected because in this case in the definition of $f$, we will be multiplying with $sqrt 2$ instead of $2$ to normalize $f$ in the interval $(0,1)$.







nt.number-theory real-analysis analytic-number-theory prime-numbers






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Apr 8 at 14:14







Nilos

















asked Apr 8 at 9:51









NilosNilos

1,4811834




1,4811834











  • $begingroup$
    From the linked question it seems that $s_n$ grows faster than $n$ so that $f(n)$ doesn't go to zero.
    $endgroup$
    – lcv
    Apr 8 at 10:18






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @lcv No $s_n$ doesn't grow faster than $n$. What are you looking at?
    $endgroup$
    – Nilos
    Apr 8 at 10:27






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    "...I wanted to have a continuous function...". In what topology is $f$ continuous? If you put discrete topology on natural numbers, then any function is continuous so you probably have something else in mind.
    $endgroup$
    – Aknazar Kazhymurat
    Apr 8 at 13:56










  • $begingroup$
    I have verified that $f$ is injective over composites less than 10,000,000.
    $endgroup$
    – Matt F.
    Apr 8 at 14:00










  • $begingroup$
    @AknazarKazhymurat I have reworded that line. Hope it is clearer now?
    $endgroup$
    – Nilos
    Apr 8 at 14:02
















  • $begingroup$
    From the linked question it seems that $s_n$ grows faster than $n$ so that $f(n)$ doesn't go to zero.
    $endgroup$
    – lcv
    Apr 8 at 10:18






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @lcv No $s_n$ doesn't grow faster than $n$. What are you looking at?
    $endgroup$
    – Nilos
    Apr 8 at 10:27






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    "...I wanted to have a continuous function...". In what topology is $f$ continuous? If you put discrete topology on natural numbers, then any function is continuous so you probably have something else in mind.
    $endgroup$
    – Aknazar Kazhymurat
    Apr 8 at 13:56










  • $begingroup$
    I have verified that $f$ is injective over composites less than 10,000,000.
    $endgroup$
    – Matt F.
    Apr 8 at 14:00










  • $begingroup$
    @AknazarKazhymurat I have reworded that line. Hope it is clearer now?
    $endgroup$
    – Nilos
    Apr 8 at 14:02















$begingroup$
From the linked question it seems that $s_n$ grows faster than $n$ so that $f(n)$ doesn't go to zero.
$endgroup$
– lcv
Apr 8 at 10:18




$begingroup$
From the linked question it seems that $s_n$ grows faster than $n$ so that $f(n)$ doesn't go to zero.
$endgroup$
– lcv
Apr 8 at 10:18




1




1




$begingroup$
@lcv No $s_n$ doesn't grow faster than $n$. What are you looking at?
$endgroup$
– Nilos
Apr 8 at 10:27




$begingroup$
@lcv No $s_n$ doesn't grow faster than $n$. What are you looking at?
$endgroup$
– Nilos
Apr 8 at 10:27




1




1




$begingroup$
"...I wanted to have a continuous function...". In what topology is $f$ continuous? If you put discrete topology on natural numbers, then any function is continuous so you probably have something else in mind.
$endgroup$
– Aknazar Kazhymurat
Apr 8 at 13:56




$begingroup$
"...I wanted to have a continuous function...". In what topology is $f$ continuous? If you put discrete topology on natural numbers, then any function is continuous so you probably have something else in mind.
$endgroup$
– Aknazar Kazhymurat
Apr 8 at 13:56












$begingroup$
I have verified that $f$ is injective over composites less than 10,000,000.
$endgroup$
– Matt F.
Apr 8 at 14:00




$begingroup$
I have verified that $f$ is injective over composites less than 10,000,000.
$endgroup$
– Matt F.
Apr 8 at 14:00












$begingroup$
@AknazarKazhymurat I have reworded that line. Hope it is clearer now?
$endgroup$
– Nilos
Apr 8 at 14:02




$begingroup$
@AknazarKazhymurat I have reworded that line. Hope it is clearer now?
$endgroup$
– Nilos
Apr 8 at 14:02










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















23












$begingroup$

The answer to Question 1 is "yes".
To see this, notice that $s_n$ is at most square root of the average square of divisor, i.e.
$$
s_nleq sqrtfracsum_dmid nd^2sum_dmid n 1=sqrtfracsigma_2(n)sigma_0(n),
$$



where $sigma_k(n)$ is the sum of $k$-th powers of divisors of $n$. Now,



$$
sigma_2(n)=n^2sigma_-2(n),
$$



so



$$
sigma_2(n)<fracpi^26n^2
$$



for all $n$. Therefore we have



$$
f(n)leq frac2n-1 sqrtfracpi^26n^2/sigma_0(n)leq frac5.14sqrtsigma_0(n)
$$



for all $n$. Now, almost all $nleq N$ have at least $0.5lnln N$ distinct prime factors. In particular, for almost all $nleq N$ we have $sigma_0(n)geq 0.5lnln N$. Therefore, our bound for $f(n)$ together with the trivial observation that $0leq f(n)leq 1$ gives



$$
sum_nleq N f(n)leq sum_nleq N, sigma_0(n)geq 0.5lnln N frac5.14sqrtsigma_0(n)+sum_nleq N, sigma_0(n)<0.5lnln N 1= o(N),
$$



as needed.



Using contour integration method one can even prove something like



$$
sum_nleq N f(n)=O(N(ln N)^1/sqrt2-1)
$$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$








  • 6




    $begingroup$
    That last expression reminds me an XKCD alt-text: "If you ever find yourself raising $log(textanything)^1/sqrt2$, set down the marker and back away from the whiteboard; something has gone horribly wrong."
    $endgroup$
    – Michael Seifert
    Apr 8 at 18:13







  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @MichaelSeifert Bah, it was $log(anything)^e$ not $frac1sqrt2$. Log to the power of one over the sqrt of 2 is mundane; log of something to the power e is a sign of insanity.
    $endgroup$
    – Yakk
    Apr 8 at 19:08







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Yakk Yeah, but Randall also says that taking $pi$-th root of anything is insane. However, the paper "Mean values of multiplicative functions" by Montgomery and Vaughan, Theorem 5, contains $(log x)^1/pi-1$ and is totally fine! (P.S. Is inequality $n_p<p^frac14sqrte+o(1)$ ok?..)
    $endgroup$
    – Asymptotiac K
    Apr 8 at 20:05






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @AsymptotiacK: Thanks for the good answer to Question 1. I think that in general if $f(n)$ is any function who value decreases from 1 to zero as its defined measure of primness decreases then the mean value of $f$ must tend to zero because as we go higher up the number line, for any $k ge 2$, the probability of of finding numbers with $le k$ factors should decrease
    $endgroup$
    – Nilotpal Kanti Sinha
    Apr 9 at 6:11











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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









23












$begingroup$

The answer to Question 1 is "yes".
To see this, notice that $s_n$ is at most square root of the average square of divisor, i.e.
$$
s_nleq sqrtfracsum_dmid nd^2sum_dmid n 1=sqrtfracsigma_2(n)sigma_0(n),
$$



where $sigma_k(n)$ is the sum of $k$-th powers of divisors of $n$. Now,



$$
sigma_2(n)=n^2sigma_-2(n),
$$



so



$$
sigma_2(n)<fracpi^26n^2
$$



for all $n$. Therefore we have



$$
f(n)leq frac2n-1 sqrtfracpi^26n^2/sigma_0(n)leq frac5.14sqrtsigma_0(n)
$$



for all $n$. Now, almost all $nleq N$ have at least $0.5lnln N$ distinct prime factors. In particular, for almost all $nleq N$ we have $sigma_0(n)geq 0.5lnln N$. Therefore, our bound for $f(n)$ together with the trivial observation that $0leq f(n)leq 1$ gives



$$
sum_nleq N f(n)leq sum_nleq N, sigma_0(n)geq 0.5lnln N frac5.14sqrtsigma_0(n)+sum_nleq N, sigma_0(n)<0.5lnln N 1= o(N),
$$



as needed.



Using contour integration method one can even prove something like



$$
sum_nleq N f(n)=O(N(ln N)^1/sqrt2-1)
$$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$








  • 6




    $begingroup$
    That last expression reminds me an XKCD alt-text: "If you ever find yourself raising $log(textanything)^1/sqrt2$, set down the marker and back away from the whiteboard; something has gone horribly wrong."
    $endgroup$
    – Michael Seifert
    Apr 8 at 18:13







  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @MichaelSeifert Bah, it was $log(anything)^e$ not $frac1sqrt2$. Log to the power of one over the sqrt of 2 is mundane; log of something to the power e is a sign of insanity.
    $endgroup$
    – Yakk
    Apr 8 at 19:08







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Yakk Yeah, but Randall also says that taking $pi$-th root of anything is insane. However, the paper "Mean values of multiplicative functions" by Montgomery and Vaughan, Theorem 5, contains $(log x)^1/pi-1$ and is totally fine! (P.S. Is inequality $n_p<p^frac14sqrte+o(1)$ ok?..)
    $endgroup$
    – Asymptotiac K
    Apr 8 at 20:05






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @AsymptotiacK: Thanks for the good answer to Question 1. I think that in general if $f(n)$ is any function who value decreases from 1 to zero as its defined measure of primness decreases then the mean value of $f$ must tend to zero because as we go higher up the number line, for any $k ge 2$, the probability of of finding numbers with $le k$ factors should decrease
    $endgroup$
    – Nilotpal Kanti Sinha
    Apr 9 at 6:11















23












$begingroup$

The answer to Question 1 is "yes".
To see this, notice that $s_n$ is at most square root of the average square of divisor, i.e.
$$
s_nleq sqrtfracsum_dmid nd^2sum_dmid n 1=sqrtfracsigma_2(n)sigma_0(n),
$$



where $sigma_k(n)$ is the sum of $k$-th powers of divisors of $n$. Now,



$$
sigma_2(n)=n^2sigma_-2(n),
$$



so



$$
sigma_2(n)<fracpi^26n^2
$$



for all $n$. Therefore we have



$$
f(n)leq frac2n-1 sqrtfracpi^26n^2/sigma_0(n)leq frac5.14sqrtsigma_0(n)
$$



for all $n$. Now, almost all $nleq N$ have at least $0.5lnln N$ distinct prime factors. In particular, for almost all $nleq N$ we have $sigma_0(n)geq 0.5lnln N$. Therefore, our bound for $f(n)$ together with the trivial observation that $0leq f(n)leq 1$ gives



$$
sum_nleq N f(n)leq sum_nleq N, sigma_0(n)geq 0.5lnln N frac5.14sqrtsigma_0(n)+sum_nleq N, sigma_0(n)<0.5lnln N 1= o(N),
$$



as needed.



Using contour integration method one can even prove something like



$$
sum_nleq N f(n)=O(N(ln N)^1/sqrt2-1)
$$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$








  • 6




    $begingroup$
    That last expression reminds me an XKCD alt-text: "If you ever find yourself raising $log(textanything)^1/sqrt2$, set down the marker and back away from the whiteboard; something has gone horribly wrong."
    $endgroup$
    – Michael Seifert
    Apr 8 at 18:13







  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @MichaelSeifert Bah, it was $log(anything)^e$ not $frac1sqrt2$. Log to the power of one over the sqrt of 2 is mundane; log of something to the power e is a sign of insanity.
    $endgroup$
    – Yakk
    Apr 8 at 19:08







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Yakk Yeah, but Randall also says that taking $pi$-th root of anything is insane. However, the paper "Mean values of multiplicative functions" by Montgomery and Vaughan, Theorem 5, contains $(log x)^1/pi-1$ and is totally fine! (P.S. Is inequality $n_p<p^frac14sqrte+o(1)$ ok?..)
    $endgroup$
    – Asymptotiac K
    Apr 8 at 20:05






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @AsymptotiacK: Thanks for the good answer to Question 1. I think that in general if $f(n)$ is any function who value decreases from 1 to zero as its defined measure of primness decreases then the mean value of $f$ must tend to zero because as we go higher up the number line, for any $k ge 2$, the probability of of finding numbers with $le k$ factors should decrease
    $endgroup$
    – Nilotpal Kanti Sinha
    Apr 9 at 6:11













23












23








23





$begingroup$

The answer to Question 1 is "yes".
To see this, notice that $s_n$ is at most square root of the average square of divisor, i.e.
$$
s_nleq sqrtfracsum_dmid nd^2sum_dmid n 1=sqrtfracsigma_2(n)sigma_0(n),
$$



where $sigma_k(n)$ is the sum of $k$-th powers of divisors of $n$. Now,



$$
sigma_2(n)=n^2sigma_-2(n),
$$



so



$$
sigma_2(n)<fracpi^26n^2
$$



for all $n$. Therefore we have



$$
f(n)leq frac2n-1 sqrtfracpi^26n^2/sigma_0(n)leq frac5.14sqrtsigma_0(n)
$$



for all $n$. Now, almost all $nleq N$ have at least $0.5lnln N$ distinct prime factors. In particular, for almost all $nleq N$ we have $sigma_0(n)geq 0.5lnln N$. Therefore, our bound for $f(n)$ together with the trivial observation that $0leq f(n)leq 1$ gives



$$
sum_nleq N f(n)leq sum_nleq N, sigma_0(n)geq 0.5lnln N frac5.14sqrtsigma_0(n)+sum_nleq N, sigma_0(n)<0.5lnln N 1= o(N),
$$



as needed.



Using contour integration method one can even prove something like



$$
sum_nleq N f(n)=O(N(ln N)^1/sqrt2-1)
$$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



The answer to Question 1 is "yes".
To see this, notice that $s_n$ is at most square root of the average square of divisor, i.e.
$$
s_nleq sqrtfracsum_dmid nd^2sum_dmid n 1=sqrtfracsigma_2(n)sigma_0(n),
$$



where $sigma_k(n)$ is the sum of $k$-th powers of divisors of $n$. Now,



$$
sigma_2(n)=n^2sigma_-2(n),
$$



so



$$
sigma_2(n)<fracpi^26n^2
$$



for all $n$. Therefore we have



$$
f(n)leq frac2n-1 sqrtfracpi^26n^2/sigma_0(n)leq frac5.14sqrtsigma_0(n)
$$



for all $n$. Now, almost all $nleq N$ have at least $0.5lnln N$ distinct prime factors. In particular, for almost all $nleq N$ we have $sigma_0(n)geq 0.5lnln N$. Therefore, our bound for $f(n)$ together with the trivial observation that $0leq f(n)leq 1$ gives



$$
sum_nleq N f(n)leq sum_nleq N, sigma_0(n)geq 0.5lnln N frac5.14sqrtsigma_0(n)+sum_nleq N, sigma_0(n)<0.5lnln N 1= o(N),
$$



as needed.



Using contour integration method one can even prove something like



$$
sum_nleq N f(n)=O(N(ln N)^1/sqrt2-1)
$$







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Apr 8 at 14:47

























answered Apr 8 at 14:09









Asymptotiac KAsymptotiac K

1,6741314




1,6741314







  • 6




    $begingroup$
    That last expression reminds me an XKCD alt-text: "If you ever find yourself raising $log(textanything)^1/sqrt2$, set down the marker and back away from the whiteboard; something has gone horribly wrong."
    $endgroup$
    – Michael Seifert
    Apr 8 at 18:13







  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @MichaelSeifert Bah, it was $log(anything)^e$ not $frac1sqrt2$. Log to the power of one over the sqrt of 2 is mundane; log of something to the power e is a sign of insanity.
    $endgroup$
    – Yakk
    Apr 8 at 19:08







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Yakk Yeah, but Randall also says that taking $pi$-th root of anything is insane. However, the paper "Mean values of multiplicative functions" by Montgomery and Vaughan, Theorem 5, contains $(log x)^1/pi-1$ and is totally fine! (P.S. Is inequality $n_p<p^frac14sqrte+o(1)$ ok?..)
    $endgroup$
    – Asymptotiac K
    Apr 8 at 20:05






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @AsymptotiacK: Thanks for the good answer to Question 1. I think that in general if $f(n)$ is any function who value decreases from 1 to zero as its defined measure of primness decreases then the mean value of $f$ must tend to zero because as we go higher up the number line, for any $k ge 2$, the probability of of finding numbers with $le k$ factors should decrease
    $endgroup$
    – Nilotpal Kanti Sinha
    Apr 9 at 6:11












  • 6




    $begingroup$
    That last expression reminds me an XKCD alt-text: "If you ever find yourself raising $log(textanything)^1/sqrt2$, set down the marker and back away from the whiteboard; something has gone horribly wrong."
    $endgroup$
    – Michael Seifert
    Apr 8 at 18:13







  • 2




    $begingroup$
    @MichaelSeifert Bah, it was $log(anything)^e$ not $frac1sqrt2$. Log to the power of one over the sqrt of 2 is mundane; log of something to the power e is a sign of insanity.
    $endgroup$
    – Yakk
    Apr 8 at 19:08







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Yakk Yeah, but Randall also says that taking $pi$-th root of anything is insane. However, the paper "Mean values of multiplicative functions" by Montgomery and Vaughan, Theorem 5, contains $(log x)^1/pi-1$ and is totally fine! (P.S. Is inequality $n_p<p^frac14sqrte+o(1)$ ok?..)
    $endgroup$
    – Asymptotiac K
    Apr 8 at 20:05






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @AsymptotiacK: Thanks for the good answer to Question 1. I think that in general if $f(n)$ is any function who value decreases from 1 to zero as its defined measure of primness decreases then the mean value of $f$ must tend to zero because as we go higher up the number line, for any $k ge 2$, the probability of of finding numbers with $le k$ factors should decrease
    $endgroup$
    – Nilotpal Kanti Sinha
    Apr 9 at 6:11







6




6




$begingroup$
That last expression reminds me an XKCD alt-text: "If you ever find yourself raising $log(textanything)^1/sqrt2$, set down the marker and back away from the whiteboard; something has gone horribly wrong."
$endgroup$
– Michael Seifert
Apr 8 at 18:13





$begingroup$
That last expression reminds me an XKCD alt-text: "If you ever find yourself raising $log(textanything)^1/sqrt2$, set down the marker and back away from the whiteboard; something has gone horribly wrong."
$endgroup$
– Michael Seifert
Apr 8 at 18:13





2




2




$begingroup$
@MichaelSeifert Bah, it was $log(anything)^e$ not $frac1sqrt2$. Log to the power of one over the sqrt of 2 is mundane; log of something to the power e is a sign of insanity.
$endgroup$
– Yakk
Apr 8 at 19:08





$begingroup$
@MichaelSeifert Bah, it was $log(anything)^e$ not $frac1sqrt2$. Log to the power of one over the sqrt of 2 is mundane; log of something to the power e is a sign of insanity.
$endgroup$
– Yakk
Apr 8 at 19:08





1




1




$begingroup$
@Yakk Yeah, but Randall also says that taking $pi$-th root of anything is insane. However, the paper "Mean values of multiplicative functions" by Montgomery and Vaughan, Theorem 5, contains $(log x)^1/pi-1$ and is totally fine! (P.S. Is inequality $n_p<p^frac14sqrte+o(1)$ ok?..)
$endgroup$
– Asymptotiac K
Apr 8 at 20:05




$begingroup$
@Yakk Yeah, but Randall also says that taking $pi$-th root of anything is insane. However, the paper "Mean values of multiplicative functions" by Montgomery and Vaughan, Theorem 5, contains $(log x)^1/pi-1$ and is totally fine! (P.S. Is inequality $n_p<p^frac14sqrte+o(1)$ ok?..)
$endgroup$
– Asymptotiac K
Apr 8 at 20:05




1




1




$begingroup$
@AsymptotiacK: Thanks for the good answer to Question 1. I think that in general if $f(n)$ is any function who value decreases from 1 to zero as its defined measure of primness decreases then the mean value of $f$ must tend to zero because as we go higher up the number line, for any $k ge 2$, the probability of of finding numbers with $le k$ factors should decrease
$endgroup$
– Nilotpal Kanti Sinha
Apr 9 at 6:11




$begingroup$
@AsymptotiacK: Thanks for the good answer to Question 1. I think that in general if $f(n)$ is any function who value decreases from 1 to zero as its defined measure of primness decreases then the mean value of $f$ must tend to zero because as we go higher up the number line, for any $k ge 2$, the probability of of finding numbers with $le k$ factors should decrease
$endgroup$
– Nilotpal Kanti Sinha
Apr 9 at 6:11

















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