A question about fixed points and non-expansive map The Next CEO of Stack OverflowDiameters, distances and contraction mappings on a subset of $C_mathbbR[0,1]$Show that $T:,c_0to c_0;;$, $xmapsto T(x)=(1,x_1,x_2,cdots),$ has no fixed pointsAbout fixed point and dampingConnection between codata and greatest fixed pointsNo fixed points imply no periodic pointsFixed points of complex rational functions dilemma.Contractions and Fixed PointsFind the Fixed points (Knaster-Tarski Theorem)On subgroups of isometries and their respective fixed-pointsWhy orientation-preserving self-homeomorphism of $mathbbCP^n$ when $n$ is odd must have fixed points?Show that $T:,c_0to c_0;;$, $xmapsto T(x)=(1,x_1,x_2,cdots),$ has no fixed pointsTo Prove $T $ is a self map and $T$ have no fixed points
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A question about fixed points and non-expansive map
The Next CEO of Stack OverflowDiameters, distances and contraction mappings on a subset of $C_mathbbR[0,1]$Show that $T:,c_0to c_0;;$, $xmapsto T(x)=(1,x_1,x_2,cdots),$ has no fixed pointsAbout fixed point and dampingConnection between codata and greatest fixed pointsNo fixed points imply no periodic pointsFixed points of complex rational functions dilemma.Contractions and Fixed PointsFind the Fixed points (Knaster-Tarski Theorem)On subgroups of isometries and their respective fixed-pointsWhy orientation-preserving self-homeomorphism of $mathbbCP^n$ when $n$ is odd must have fixed points?Show that $T:,c_0to c_0;;$, $xmapsto T(x)=(1,x_1,x_2,cdots),$ has no fixed pointsTo Prove $T $ is a self map and $T$ have no fixed points
$begingroup$
Let $$K=x=(x(n))_nin l_2(mathbbN):$$ and define $T:Kto c_0$ by $T(x)=(1-|x|_2,x(1),x(2),ldots)$. Prove :
(1) $T$ is self map on $K$ and $|Tx-Ty|_2le sqrt2 |x-y|_2$
(2) $T $ does not have fixed points in $K$
my attempt
for (2):
suppose $T$ have fixed point i.e., $Tx=x$
then $(1-|x|_2, x(1),x(2),ldots)=(x(1),x(2),ldots)$
then $x(1)=1-|x|_2, x(2)=x(1), x(3)=x(2),ldots$
$$therefore |x|_2 =left(sum ^n_n=infty |x(n)|^2right)^frac12 = left(sum ^n_n=infty (1-|x|_2)^2right)^frac12$$
but how to prove this $x$ is not in $K$?
how to prove (1)
functional-analysis fixed-point-theorems
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $$K=x=(x(n))_nin l_2(mathbbN):$$ and define $T:Kto c_0$ by $T(x)=(1-|x|_2,x(1),x(2),ldots)$. Prove :
(1) $T$ is self map on $K$ and $|Tx-Ty|_2le sqrt2 |x-y|_2$
(2) $T $ does not have fixed points in $K$
my attempt
for (2):
suppose $T$ have fixed point i.e., $Tx=x$
then $(1-|x|_2, x(1),x(2),ldots)=(x(1),x(2),ldots)$
then $x(1)=1-|x|_2, x(2)=x(1), x(3)=x(2),ldots$
$$therefore |x|_2 =left(sum ^n_n=infty |x(n)|^2right)^frac12 = left(sum ^n_n=infty (1-|x|_2)^2right)^frac12$$
but how to prove this $x$ is not in $K$?
how to prove (1)
functional-analysis fixed-point-theorems
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
It seems that your calculation does not match the definition of $T$.
$endgroup$
– Song
Mar 24 at 8:01
$begingroup$
@Song..now i edited correctly thank you
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 8:13
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $$K=x=(x(n))_nin l_2(mathbbN):$$ and define $T:Kto c_0$ by $T(x)=(1-|x|_2,x(1),x(2),ldots)$. Prove :
(1) $T$ is self map on $K$ and $|Tx-Ty|_2le sqrt2 |x-y|_2$
(2) $T $ does not have fixed points in $K$
my attempt
for (2):
suppose $T$ have fixed point i.e., $Tx=x$
then $(1-|x|_2, x(1),x(2),ldots)=(x(1),x(2),ldots)$
then $x(1)=1-|x|_2, x(2)=x(1), x(3)=x(2),ldots$
$$therefore |x|_2 =left(sum ^n_n=infty |x(n)|^2right)^frac12 = left(sum ^n_n=infty (1-|x|_2)^2right)^frac12$$
but how to prove this $x$ is not in $K$?
how to prove (1)
functional-analysis fixed-point-theorems
$endgroup$
Let $$K=x=(x(n))_nin l_2(mathbbN):$$ and define $T:Kto c_0$ by $T(x)=(1-|x|_2,x(1),x(2),ldots)$. Prove :
(1) $T$ is self map on $K$ and $|Tx-Ty|_2le sqrt2 |x-y|_2$
(2) $T $ does not have fixed points in $K$
my attempt
for (2):
suppose $T$ have fixed point i.e., $Tx=x$
then $(1-|x|_2, x(1),x(2),ldots)=(x(1),x(2),ldots)$
then $x(1)=1-|x|_2, x(2)=x(1), x(3)=x(2),ldots$
$$therefore |x|_2 =left(sum ^n_n=infty |x(n)|^2right)^frac12 = left(sum ^n_n=infty (1-|x|_2)^2right)^frac12$$
but how to prove this $x$ is not in $K$?
how to prove (1)
functional-analysis fixed-point-theorems
functional-analysis fixed-point-theorems
edited Mar 24 at 10:46
mechanodroid
29k62648
29k62648
asked Mar 24 at 7:52
Inverse ProblemInverse Problem
1,028918
1,028918
$begingroup$
It seems that your calculation does not match the definition of $T$.
$endgroup$
– Song
Mar 24 at 8:01
$begingroup$
@Song..now i edited correctly thank you
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 8:13
add a comment |
$begingroup$
It seems that your calculation does not match the definition of $T$.
$endgroup$
– Song
Mar 24 at 8:01
$begingroup$
@Song..now i edited correctly thank you
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 8:13
$begingroup$
It seems that your calculation does not match the definition of $T$.
$endgroup$
– Song
Mar 24 at 8:01
$begingroup$
It seems that your calculation does not match the definition of $T$.
$endgroup$
– Song
Mar 24 at 8:01
$begingroup$
@Song..now i edited correctly thank you
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 8:13
$begingroup$
@Song..now i edited correctly thank you
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 8:13
add a comment |
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
For $(2)$ you got that if $Tx = x$ then $$x = (1-|x|_2, 1-|x|_2, ldots)$$
so $$+infty > |x|_2^2 = sum_n=1^infty (1-|x|_2)^2$$
The only way this series converges is if $1-|x|_2 = 0$, or $|x|_2 = 1$, so $x = (1,1,1ldots )$. But then clearly $|x|_2 = +infty$ and not $1$ so this is a contradiction.
To show that $T$ is actually a map $K to K$, take $x in K$ and we claim that $Tx in K$ as well.
Since $|x|_2 le 1$ we have $1-|x|_2 ge 0$ so
beginalign
|Tx|_2^2 &= (1-|x|_2)^2 + sum_n=1^infty |x_n|^2 \
&= (1-|x|_2)^2 + |x|_2^2 \
&le (1-|x|_2)^2 + 2(1-|x|_2)|x|_2 + |x|_2^2 \
&= (1-|x|_2+|x|_2)^2 \
&= 1
endalign
which means $|Tx|_2 le 1$.
Also clearly all coordinates of $$Tx = (1-|x|_2, x_1, x_2, ldots)$$
are nonnegative since $x_n ge 0, forall n in mathbbN$ and $1-|x|_2 ge 0$.
Therefore $Tx in K$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
@mechanodroid...thank you so much but i have doubt with how to show $T$ is self map in question (1)
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 10:27
$begingroup$
@InverseProblem Have a look.
$endgroup$
– mechanodroid
Mar 24 at 10:42
$begingroup$
@mechanodroid......thank you so much ......for your help
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 12:51
$begingroup$
@mechanodroid...can you give some hint this question please...math.stackexchange.com/questions/3159556/…
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 13:09
$begingroup$
@InverseProblem I have added an answer, can you explain what exactly is $T$ in the definition of $T_n$?
$endgroup$
– mechanodroid
Mar 24 at 15:48
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You're on the right track.
As you said - $||x||_2 =(sum ^infty_n=1 |1-||x|||_2|^2)^frac12$
There is only one possible way for this sum to converge - if and only if $||x||_2=1$. But in this case, we also get $||x||_2=0$ - a contradiction.
About (1) - let's try evaluating the required norm:
$||Tx-Ty||_2=||(1-||x||_2,x(1),x(2),...)-(1-||y||_2,y(1),y(2),...)||_2\=||(||y||_2-||x||_2,x(1)-y(1),x(2)-y(2),...)||_2\=(|||y||_2-||x||_2|^2+sum ^infty_n=2 |x(n)-y(n)|^2)^frac12\=(|||y||_2-||x||_2|^2-|x(1)-y(1)|^2+sum ^infty_n=1 |x(n)-y(n)|^2)^frac12\leq(||x-y||_2^2-|x(1)-y(1)|^2+||x-y||_2^2)^frac12\=(2||x-y||_2^2-|x(1)-y(1)|^2)^frac12\ leq sqrt2||x-y||_2$
(Every $leq$ sign is due to triangle inequality)
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..can you tell me how to prove self map
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 9:09
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I'm not familiar with that term, what does it mean?
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– GSofer
Mar 24 at 9:11
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it means that we have to prove $T$ map from $K$ to $K$
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 9:13
add a comment |
$begingroup$
It seems to me one may not need the assumption $x(n)geq 0$. In fact, if $Tx=x$,
then $|Tx|^2=|x|^2$ which says $(1-|x|)^2+x(1)^2+x(2)^2...=x(1)^2+x(2)^2+...$,
so we see $|x|=1$. Then $x(1)=0$. Let $n$ be the first integer with $x(n)neq 0$,
there exists such $n$ since $|x|=1$.
So $x(n-1)=0$, but the $n$-th component in $Tx$ is $x(n-1)=0$, contradicts
$Tx=x$ and $x(n)neq 0$.
Part 1: $|Tx-Ty|^2=[(1-|x|)-(1-|y|)]^2+[x(1)-y(1)]^2+...=(|x|-|y|)^2+|x-y|^2leq |x-y|^2+|x-y|^2=2|x-y|^2$ .
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Ding....can you tell how to prove this is self map
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 9:08
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From $|x|leq 1$, the condition $x(n)geq 0$ is preserved by $T$. Next, $|Tx|^2=(1-|x|)^2+|x|^2leq 1$, here one uses the elementary inequality $(1-a)^2+a^2leq 1$ when $0leq aleq 1$, which can be checked by finding the maximum of $(1-a)^2+a^2$ on $[0, 1]$.
$endgroup$
– Yu Ding
Mar 24 at 9:17
$begingroup$
what is this mean when u want to prove a map is self map it means we have to prove that map itself to a set
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 9:19
add a comment |
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3 Answers
3
active
oldest
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3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
For $(2)$ you got that if $Tx = x$ then $$x = (1-|x|_2, 1-|x|_2, ldots)$$
so $$+infty > |x|_2^2 = sum_n=1^infty (1-|x|_2)^2$$
The only way this series converges is if $1-|x|_2 = 0$, or $|x|_2 = 1$, so $x = (1,1,1ldots )$. But then clearly $|x|_2 = +infty$ and not $1$ so this is a contradiction.
To show that $T$ is actually a map $K to K$, take $x in K$ and we claim that $Tx in K$ as well.
Since $|x|_2 le 1$ we have $1-|x|_2 ge 0$ so
beginalign
|Tx|_2^2 &= (1-|x|_2)^2 + sum_n=1^infty |x_n|^2 \
&= (1-|x|_2)^2 + |x|_2^2 \
&le (1-|x|_2)^2 + 2(1-|x|_2)|x|_2 + |x|_2^2 \
&= (1-|x|_2+|x|_2)^2 \
&= 1
endalign
which means $|Tx|_2 le 1$.
Also clearly all coordinates of $$Tx = (1-|x|_2, x_1, x_2, ldots)$$
are nonnegative since $x_n ge 0, forall n in mathbbN$ and $1-|x|_2 ge 0$.
Therefore $Tx in K$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
@mechanodroid...thank you so much but i have doubt with how to show $T$ is self map in question (1)
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 10:27
$begingroup$
@InverseProblem Have a look.
$endgroup$
– mechanodroid
Mar 24 at 10:42
$begingroup$
@mechanodroid......thank you so much ......for your help
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 12:51
$begingroup$
@mechanodroid...can you give some hint this question please...math.stackexchange.com/questions/3159556/…
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 13:09
$begingroup$
@InverseProblem I have added an answer, can you explain what exactly is $T$ in the definition of $T_n$?
$endgroup$
– mechanodroid
Mar 24 at 15:48
add a comment |
$begingroup$
For $(2)$ you got that if $Tx = x$ then $$x = (1-|x|_2, 1-|x|_2, ldots)$$
so $$+infty > |x|_2^2 = sum_n=1^infty (1-|x|_2)^2$$
The only way this series converges is if $1-|x|_2 = 0$, or $|x|_2 = 1$, so $x = (1,1,1ldots )$. But then clearly $|x|_2 = +infty$ and not $1$ so this is a contradiction.
To show that $T$ is actually a map $K to K$, take $x in K$ and we claim that $Tx in K$ as well.
Since $|x|_2 le 1$ we have $1-|x|_2 ge 0$ so
beginalign
|Tx|_2^2 &= (1-|x|_2)^2 + sum_n=1^infty |x_n|^2 \
&= (1-|x|_2)^2 + |x|_2^2 \
&le (1-|x|_2)^2 + 2(1-|x|_2)|x|_2 + |x|_2^2 \
&= (1-|x|_2+|x|_2)^2 \
&= 1
endalign
which means $|Tx|_2 le 1$.
Also clearly all coordinates of $$Tx = (1-|x|_2, x_1, x_2, ldots)$$
are nonnegative since $x_n ge 0, forall n in mathbbN$ and $1-|x|_2 ge 0$.
Therefore $Tx in K$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
@mechanodroid...thank you so much but i have doubt with how to show $T$ is self map in question (1)
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 10:27
$begingroup$
@InverseProblem Have a look.
$endgroup$
– mechanodroid
Mar 24 at 10:42
$begingroup$
@mechanodroid......thank you so much ......for your help
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 12:51
$begingroup$
@mechanodroid...can you give some hint this question please...math.stackexchange.com/questions/3159556/…
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 13:09
$begingroup$
@InverseProblem I have added an answer, can you explain what exactly is $T$ in the definition of $T_n$?
$endgroup$
– mechanodroid
Mar 24 at 15:48
add a comment |
$begingroup$
For $(2)$ you got that if $Tx = x$ then $$x = (1-|x|_2, 1-|x|_2, ldots)$$
so $$+infty > |x|_2^2 = sum_n=1^infty (1-|x|_2)^2$$
The only way this series converges is if $1-|x|_2 = 0$, or $|x|_2 = 1$, so $x = (1,1,1ldots )$. But then clearly $|x|_2 = +infty$ and not $1$ so this is a contradiction.
To show that $T$ is actually a map $K to K$, take $x in K$ and we claim that $Tx in K$ as well.
Since $|x|_2 le 1$ we have $1-|x|_2 ge 0$ so
beginalign
|Tx|_2^2 &= (1-|x|_2)^2 + sum_n=1^infty |x_n|^2 \
&= (1-|x|_2)^2 + |x|_2^2 \
&le (1-|x|_2)^2 + 2(1-|x|_2)|x|_2 + |x|_2^2 \
&= (1-|x|_2+|x|_2)^2 \
&= 1
endalign
which means $|Tx|_2 le 1$.
Also clearly all coordinates of $$Tx = (1-|x|_2, x_1, x_2, ldots)$$
are nonnegative since $x_n ge 0, forall n in mathbbN$ and $1-|x|_2 ge 0$.
Therefore $Tx in K$.
$endgroup$
For $(2)$ you got that if $Tx = x$ then $$x = (1-|x|_2, 1-|x|_2, ldots)$$
so $$+infty > |x|_2^2 = sum_n=1^infty (1-|x|_2)^2$$
The only way this series converges is if $1-|x|_2 = 0$, or $|x|_2 = 1$, so $x = (1,1,1ldots )$. But then clearly $|x|_2 = +infty$ and not $1$ so this is a contradiction.
To show that $T$ is actually a map $K to K$, take $x in K$ and we claim that $Tx in K$ as well.
Since $|x|_2 le 1$ we have $1-|x|_2 ge 0$ so
beginalign
|Tx|_2^2 &= (1-|x|_2)^2 + sum_n=1^infty |x_n|^2 \
&= (1-|x|_2)^2 + |x|_2^2 \
&le (1-|x|_2)^2 + 2(1-|x|_2)|x|_2 + |x|_2^2 \
&= (1-|x|_2+|x|_2)^2 \
&= 1
endalign
which means $|Tx|_2 le 1$.
Also clearly all coordinates of $$Tx = (1-|x|_2, x_1, x_2, ldots)$$
are nonnegative since $x_n ge 0, forall n in mathbbN$ and $1-|x|_2 ge 0$.
Therefore $Tx in K$.
edited Mar 24 at 10:42
answered Mar 24 at 10:15
mechanodroidmechanodroid
29k62648
29k62648
$begingroup$
@mechanodroid...thank you so much but i have doubt with how to show $T$ is self map in question (1)
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 10:27
$begingroup$
@InverseProblem Have a look.
$endgroup$
– mechanodroid
Mar 24 at 10:42
$begingroup$
@mechanodroid......thank you so much ......for your help
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 12:51
$begingroup$
@mechanodroid...can you give some hint this question please...math.stackexchange.com/questions/3159556/…
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 13:09
$begingroup$
@InverseProblem I have added an answer, can you explain what exactly is $T$ in the definition of $T_n$?
$endgroup$
– mechanodroid
Mar 24 at 15:48
add a comment |
$begingroup$
@mechanodroid...thank you so much but i have doubt with how to show $T$ is self map in question (1)
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 10:27
$begingroup$
@InverseProblem Have a look.
$endgroup$
– mechanodroid
Mar 24 at 10:42
$begingroup$
@mechanodroid......thank you so much ......for your help
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 12:51
$begingroup$
@mechanodroid...can you give some hint this question please...math.stackexchange.com/questions/3159556/…
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 13:09
$begingroup$
@InverseProblem I have added an answer, can you explain what exactly is $T$ in the definition of $T_n$?
$endgroup$
– mechanodroid
Mar 24 at 15:48
$begingroup$
@mechanodroid...thank you so much but i have doubt with how to show $T$ is self map in question (1)
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 10:27
$begingroup$
@mechanodroid...thank you so much but i have doubt with how to show $T$ is self map in question (1)
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 10:27
$begingroup$
@InverseProblem Have a look.
$endgroup$
– mechanodroid
Mar 24 at 10:42
$begingroup$
@InverseProblem Have a look.
$endgroup$
– mechanodroid
Mar 24 at 10:42
$begingroup$
@mechanodroid......thank you so much ......for your help
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 12:51
$begingroup$
@mechanodroid......thank you so much ......for your help
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 12:51
$begingroup$
@mechanodroid...can you give some hint this question please...math.stackexchange.com/questions/3159556/…
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 13:09
$begingroup$
@mechanodroid...can you give some hint this question please...math.stackexchange.com/questions/3159556/…
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 13:09
$begingroup$
@InverseProblem I have added an answer, can you explain what exactly is $T$ in the definition of $T_n$?
$endgroup$
– mechanodroid
Mar 24 at 15:48
$begingroup$
@InverseProblem I have added an answer, can you explain what exactly is $T$ in the definition of $T_n$?
$endgroup$
– mechanodroid
Mar 24 at 15:48
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You're on the right track.
As you said - $||x||_2 =(sum ^infty_n=1 |1-||x|||_2|^2)^frac12$
There is only one possible way for this sum to converge - if and only if $||x||_2=1$. But in this case, we also get $||x||_2=0$ - a contradiction.
About (1) - let's try evaluating the required norm:
$||Tx-Ty||_2=||(1-||x||_2,x(1),x(2),...)-(1-||y||_2,y(1),y(2),...)||_2\=||(||y||_2-||x||_2,x(1)-y(1),x(2)-y(2),...)||_2\=(|||y||_2-||x||_2|^2+sum ^infty_n=2 |x(n)-y(n)|^2)^frac12\=(|||y||_2-||x||_2|^2-|x(1)-y(1)|^2+sum ^infty_n=1 |x(n)-y(n)|^2)^frac12\leq(||x-y||_2^2-|x(1)-y(1)|^2+||x-y||_2^2)^frac12\=(2||x-y||_2^2-|x(1)-y(1)|^2)^frac12\ leq sqrt2||x-y||_2$
(Every $leq$ sign is due to triangle inequality)
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
..can you tell me how to prove self map
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 9:09
$begingroup$
I'm not familiar with that term, what does it mean?
$endgroup$
– GSofer
Mar 24 at 9:11
$begingroup$
it means that we have to prove $T$ map from $K$ to $K$
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 9:13
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You're on the right track.
As you said - $||x||_2 =(sum ^infty_n=1 |1-||x|||_2|^2)^frac12$
There is only one possible way for this sum to converge - if and only if $||x||_2=1$. But in this case, we also get $||x||_2=0$ - a contradiction.
About (1) - let's try evaluating the required norm:
$||Tx-Ty||_2=||(1-||x||_2,x(1),x(2),...)-(1-||y||_2,y(1),y(2),...)||_2\=||(||y||_2-||x||_2,x(1)-y(1),x(2)-y(2),...)||_2\=(|||y||_2-||x||_2|^2+sum ^infty_n=2 |x(n)-y(n)|^2)^frac12\=(|||y||_2-||x||_2|^2-|x(1)-y(1)|^2+sum ^infty_n=1 |x(n)-y(n)|^2)^frac12\leq(||x-y||_2^2-|x(1)-y(1)|^2+||x-y||_2^2)^frac12\=(2||x-y||_2^2-|x(1)-y(1)|^2)^frac12\ leq sqrt2||x-y||_2$
(Every $leq$ sign is due to triangle inequality)
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
..can you tell me how to prove self map
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 9:09
$begingroup$
I'm not familiar with that term, what does it mean?
$endgroup$
– GSofer
Mar 24 at 9:11
$begingroup$
it means that we have to prove $T$ map from $K$ to $K$
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 9:13
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You're on the right track.
As you said - $||x||_2 =(sum ^infty_n=1 |1-||x|||_2|^2)^frac12$
There is only one possible way for this sum to converge - if and only if $||x||_2=1$. But in this case, we also get $||x||_2=0$ - a contradiction.
About (1) - let's try evaluating the required norm:
$||Tx-Ty||_2=||(1-||x||_2,x(1),x(2),...)-(1-||y||_2,y(1),y(2),...)||_2\=||(||y||_2-||x||_2,x(1)-y(1),x(2)-y(2),...)||_2\=(|||y||_2-||x||_2|^2+sum ^infty_n=2 |x(n)-y(n)|^2)^frac12\=(|||y||_2-||x||_2|^2-|x(1)-y(1)|^2+sum ^infty_n=1 |x(n)-y(n)|^2)^frac12\leq(||x-y||_2^2-|x(1)-y(1)|^2+||x-y||_2^2)^frac12\=(2||x-y||_2^2-|x(1)-y(1)|^2)^frac12\ leq sqrt2||x-y||_2$
(Every $leq$ sign is due to triangle inequality)
$endgroup$
You're on the right track.
As you said - $||x||_2 =(sum ^infty_n=1 |1-||x|||_2|^2)^frac12$
There is only one possible way for this sum to converge - if and only if $||x||_2=1$. But in this case, we also get $||x||_2=0$ - a contradiction.
About (1) - let's try evaluating the required norm:
$||Tx-Ty||_2=||(1-||x||_2,x(1),x(2),...)-(1-||y||_2,y(1),y(2),...)||_2\=||(||y||_2-||x||_2,x(1)-y(1),x(2)-y(2),...)||_2\=(|||y||_2-||x||_2|^2+sum ^infty_n=2 |x(n)-y(n)|^2)^frac12\=(|||y||_2-||x||_2|^2-|x(1)-y(1)|^2+sum ^infty_n=1 |x(n)-y(n)|^2)^frac12\leq(||x-y||_2^2-|x(1)-y(1)|^2+||x-y||_2^2)^frac12\=(2||x-y||_2^2-|x(1)-y(1)|^2)^frac12\ leq sqrt2||x-y||_2$
(Every $leq$ sign is due to triangle inequality)
edited Mar 24 at 8:55
answered Mar 24 at 8:16
GSoferGSofer
8261313
8261313
$begingroup$
..can you tell me how to prove self map
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 9:09
$begingroup$
I'm not familiar with that term, what does it mean?
$endgroup$
– GSofer
Mar 24 at 9:11
$begingroup$
it means that we have to prove $T$ map from $K$ to $K$
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 9:13
add a comment |
$begingroup$
..can you tell me how to prove self map
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 9:09
$begingroup$
I'm not familiar with that term, what does it mean?
$endgroup$
– GSofer
Mar 24 at 9:11
$begingroup$
it means that we have to prove $T$ map from $K$ to $K$
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 9:13
$begingroup$
..can you tell me how to prove self map
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 9:09
$begingroup$
..can you tell me how to prove self map
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 9:09
$begingroup$
I'm not familiar with that term, what does it mean?
$endgroup$
– GSofer
Mar 24 at 9:11
$begingroup$
I'm not familiar with that term, what does it mean?
$endgroup$
– GSofer
Mar 24 at 9:11
$begingroup$
it means that we have to prove $T$ map from $K$ to $K$
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 9:13
$begingroup$
it means that we have to prove $T$ map from $K$ to $K$
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 9:13
add a comment |
$begingroup$
It seems to me one may not need the assumption $x(n)geq 0$. In fact, if $Tx=x$,
then $|Tx|^2=|x|^2$ which says $(1-|x|)^2+x(1)^2+x(2)^2...=x(1)^2+x(2)^2+...$,
so we see $|x|=1$. Then $x(1)=0$. Let $n$ be the first integer with $x(n)neq 0$,
there exists such $n$ since $|x|=1$.
So $x(n-1)=0$, but the $n$-th component in $Tx$ is $x(n-1)=0$, contradicts
$Tx=x$ and $x(n)neq 0$.
Part 1: $|Tx-Ty|^2=[(1-|x|)-(1-|y|)]^2+[x(1)-y(1)]^2+...=(|x|-|y|)^2+|x-y|^2leq |x-y|^2+|x-y|^2=2|x-y|^2$ .
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Ding....can you tell how to prove this is self map
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 9:08
$begingroup$
From $|x|leq 1$, the condition $x(n)geq 0$ is preserved by $T$. Next, $|Tx|^2=(1-|x|)^2+|x|^2leq 1$, here one uses the elementary inequality $(1-a)^2+a^2leq 1$ when $0leq aleq 1$, which can be checked by finding the maximum of $(1-a)^2+a^2$ on $[0, 1]$.
$endgroup$
– Yu Ding
Mar 24 at 9:17
$begingroup$
what is this mean when u want to prove a map is self map it means we have to prove that map itself to a set
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 9:19
add a comment |
$begingroup$
It seems to me one may not need the assumption $x(n)geq 0$. In fact, if $Tx=x$,
then $|Tx|^2=|x|^2$ which says $(1-|x|)^2+x(1)^2+x(2)^2...=x(1)^2+x(2)^2+...$,
so we see $|x|=1$. Then $x(1)=0$. Let $n$ be the first integer with $x(n)neq 0$,
there exists such $n$ since $|x|=1$.
So $x(n-1)=0$, but the $n$-th component in $Tx$ is $x(n-1)=0$, contradicts
$Tx=x$ and $x(n)neq 0$.
Part 1: $|Tx-Ty|^2=[(1-|x|)-(1-|y|)]^2+[x(1)-y(1)]^2+...=(|x|-|y|)^2+|x-y|^2leq |x-y|^2+|x-y|^2=2|x-y|^2$ .
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Ding....can you tell how to prove this is self map
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 9:08
$begingroup$
From $|x|leq 1$, the condition $x(n)geq 0$ is preserved by $T$. Next, $|Tx|^2=(1-|x|)^2+|x|^2leq 1$, here one uses the elementary inequality $(1-a)^2+a^2leq 1$ when $0leq aleq 1$, which can be checked by finding the maximum of $(1-a)^2+a^2$ on $[0, 1]$.
$endgroup$
– Yu Ding
Mar 24 at 9:17
$begingroup$
what is this mean when u want to prove a map is self map it means we have to prove that map itself to a set
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 9:19
add a comment |
$begingroup$
It seems to me one may not need the assumption $x(n)geq 0$. In fact, if $Tx=x$,
then $|Tx|^2=|x|^2$ which says $(1-|x|)^2+x(1)^2+x(2)^2...=x(1)^2+x(2)^2+...$,
so we see $|x|=1$. Then $x(1)=0$. Let $n$ be the first integer with $x(n)neq 0$,
there exists such $n$ since $|x|=1$.
So $x(n-1)=0$, but the $n$-th component in $Tx$ is $x(n-1)=0$, contradicts
$Tx=x$ and $x(n)neq 0$.
Part 1: $|Tx-Ty|^2=[(1-|x|)-(1-|y|)]^2+[x(1)-y(1)]^2+...=(|x|-|y|)^2+|x-y|^2leq |x-y|^2+|x-y|^2=2|x-y|^2$ .
$endgroup$
It seems to me one may not need the assumption $x(n)geq 0$. In fact, if $Tx=x$,
then $|Tx|^2=|x|^2$ which says $(1-|x|)^2+x(1)^2+x(2)^2...=x(1)^2+x(2)^2+...$,
so we see $|x|=1$. Then $x(1)=0$. Let $n$ be the first integer with $x(n)neq 0$,
there exists such $n$ since $|x|=1$.
So $x(n-1)=0$, but the $n$-th component in $Tx$ is $x(n-1)=0$, contradicts
$Tx=x$ and $x(n)neq 0$.
Part 1: $|Tx-Ty|^2=[(1-|x|)-(1-|y|)]^2+[x(1)-y(1)]^2+...=(|x|-|y|)^2+|x-y|^2leq |x-y|^2+|x-y|^2=2|x-y|^2$ .
answered Mar 24 at 8:48
Yu DingYu Ding
6287
6287
$begingroup$
Ding....can you tell how to prove this is self map
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 9:08
$begingroup$
From $|x|leq 1$, the condition $x(n)geq 0$ is preserved by $T$. Next, $|Tx|^2=(1-|x|)^2+|x|^2leq 1$, here one uses the elementary inequality $(1-a)^2+a^2leq 1$ when $0leq aleq 1$, which can be checked by finding the maximum of $(1-a)^2+a^2$ on $[0, 1]$.
$endgroup$
– Yu Ding
Mar 24 at 9:17
$begingroup$
what is this mean when u want to prove a map is self map it means we have to prove that map itself to a set
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 9:19
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Ding....can you tell how to prove this is self map
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 9:08
$begingroup$
From $|x|leq 1$, the condition $x(n)geq 0$ is preserved by $T$. Next, $|Tx|^2=(1-|x|)^2+|x|^2leq 1$, here one uses the elementary inequality $(1-a)^2+a^2leq 1$ when $0leq aleq 1$, which can be checked by finding the maximum of $(1-a)^2+a^2$ on $[0, 1]$.
$endgroup$
– Yu Ding
Mar 24 at 9:17
$begingroup$
what is this mean when u want to prove a map is self map it means we have to prove that map itself to a set
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 9:19
$begingroup$
Ding....can you tell how to prove this is self map
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 9:08
$begingroup$
Ding....can you tell how to prove this is self map
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 9:08
$begingroup$
From $|x|leq 1$, the condition $x(n)geq 0$ is preserved by $T$. Next, $|Tx|^2=(1-|x|)^2+|x|^2leq 1$, here one uses the elementary inequality $(1-a)^2+a^2leq 1$ when $0leq aleq 1$, which can be checked by finding the maximum of $(1-a)^2+a^2$ on $[0, 1]$.
$endgroup$
– Yu Ding
Mar 24 at 9:17
$begingroup$
From $|x|leq 1$, the condition $x(n)geq 0$ is preserved by $T$. Next, $|Tx|^2=(1-|x|)^2+|x|^2leq 1$, here one uses the elementary inequality $(1-a)^2+a^2leq 1$ when $0leq aleq 1$, which can be checked by finding the maximum of $(1-a)^2+a^2$ on $[0, 1]$.
$endgroup$
– Yu Ding
Mar 24 at 9:17
$begingroup$
what is this mean when u want to prove a map is self map it means we have to prove that map itself to a set
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 9:19
$begingroup$
what is this mean when u want to prove a map is self map it means we have to prove that map itself to a set
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 9:19
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
It seems that your calculation does not match the definition of $T$.
$endgroup$
– Song
Mar 24 at 8:01
$begingroup$
@Song..now i edited correctly thank you
$endgroup$
– Inverse Problem
Mar 24 at 8:13