When do we add a hyphen (-) to a complex adjective word?Is There A Hyphen Limit When Hyphenating Words?“At risk”, or “at-risk”? What's the difference?Is there a hyphen before “hundred” when used in adjective form?May “self-taught” and “self-study” be written without hyphen?Do I need hyphen in this context?How to avoid ambiguity in the sentence“This is a little used car”?Hyphen in “fine-grained” when it follows a nounA question about using a hyphenA question pertaining to using a hyphenUsing a hyphen in double figures

How is the partial sum of a geometric sequence calculated?

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When do we add a hyphen (-) to a complex adjective word?


Is There A Hyphen Limit When Hyphenating Words?“At risk”, or “at-risk”? What's the difference?Is there a hyphen before “hundred” when used in adjective form?May “self-taught” and “self-study” be written without hyphen?Do I need hyphen in this context?How to avoid ambiguity in the sentence“This is a little used car”?Hyphen in “fine-grained” when it follows a nounA question about using a hyphenA question pertaining to using a hyphenUsing a hyphen in double figures













8















When do we add a hyphen (-) to a complex adjective word?



Here are a few examples:




This is an Xbox-compatible game.



This is a Creation-Kit-compatible 3d asset.



This is a SkyRe-compatible Skyrim mod.




More often than not all these examples are used without a hyphen or hyphens. Is this a case of people making a grammatical mistake or are both forms completely correct and it's just a matter of preference?










share|improve this question
























  • The hyphen is used to indicate that it is a morphological compound word consisting of two bases, as opposed to a syntactic construction consisting of head+modifier.

    – BillJ
    2 days ago






  • 1





    My employer couldn't read my signature, so I re-signed the contract. Afterwards, I resigned.

    – Strawberry
    2 days ago











  • Robusto's and fred2's answers don't address a situation which often causes doubt as to whether to write a hyphenated word or two separate words, namely, where the second is an adjective, and the first is an adverb modifying it. This answer to another question might help.

    – Rosie F
    2 days ago















8















When do we add a hyphen (-) to a complex adjective word?



Here are a few examples:




This is an Xbox-compatible game.



This is a Creation-Kit-compatible 3d asset.



This is a SkyRe-compatible Skyrim mod.




More often than not all these examples are used without a hyphen or hyphens. Is this a case of people making a grammatical mistake or are both forms completely correct and it's just a matter of preference?










share|improve this question
























  • The hyphen is used to indicate that it is a morphological compound word consisting of two bases, as opposed to a syntactic construction consisting of head+modifier.

    – BillJ
    2 days ago






  • 1





    My employer couldn't read my signature, so I re-signed the contract. Afterwards, I resigned.

    – Strawberry
    2 days ago











  • Robusto's and fred2's answers don't address a situation which often causes doubt as to whether to write a hyphenated word or two separate words, namely, where the second is an adjective, and the first is an adverb modifying it. This answer to another question might help.

    – Rosie F
    2 days ago













8












8








8


1






When do we add a hyphen (-) to a complex adjective word?



Here are a few examples:




This is an Xbox-compatible game.



This is a Creation-Kit-compatible 3d asset.



This is a SkyRe-compatible Skyrim mod.




More often than not all these examples are used without a hyphen or hyphens. Is this a case of people making a grammatical mistake or are both forms completely correct and it's just a matter of preference?










share|improve this question
















When do we add a hyphen (-) to a complex adjective word?



Here are a few examples:




This is an Xbox-compatible game.



This is a Creation-Kit-compatible 3d asset.



This is a SkyRe-compatible Skyrim mod.




More often than not all these examples are used without a hyphen or hyphens. Is this a case of people making a grammatical mistake or are both forms completely correct and it's just a matter of preference?







hyphens






share|improve this question















share|improve this question













share|improve this question




share|improve this question








edited 2 days ago









psmears

40739




40739










asked Mar 15 at 0:48









repomonsterrepomonster

1,146216




1,146216












  • The hyphen is used to indicate that it is a morphological compound word consisting of two bases, as opposed to a syntactic construction consisting of head+modifier.

    – BillJ
    2 days ago






  • 1





    My employer couldn't read my signature, so I re-signed the contract. Afterwards, I resigned.

    – Strawberry
    2 days ago











  • Robusto's and fred2's answers don't address a situation which often causes doubt as to whether to write a hyphenated word or two separate words, namely, where the second is an adjective, and the first is an adverb modifying it. This answer to another question might help.

    – Rosie F
    2 days ago

















  • The hyphen is used to indicate that it is a morphological compound word consisting of two bases, as opposed to a syntactic construction consisting of head+modifier.

    – BillJ
    2 days ago






  • 1





    My employer couldn't read my signature, so I re-signed the contract. Afterwards, I resigned.

    – Strawberry
    2 days ago











  • Robusto's and fred2's answers don't address a situation which often causes doubt as to whether to write a hyphenated word or two separate words, namely, where the second is an adjective, and the first is an adverb modifying it. This answer to another question might help.

    – Rosie F
    2 days ago
















The hyphen is used to indicate that it is a morphological compound word consisting of two bases, as opposed to a syntactic construction consisting of head+modifier.

– BillJ
2 days ago





The hyphen is used to indicate that it is a morphological compound word consisting of two bases, as opposed to a syntactic construction consisting of head+modifier.

– BillJ
2 days ago




1




1





My employer couldn't read my signature, so I re-signed the contract. Afterwards, I resigned.

– Strawberry
2 days ago





My employer couldn't read my signature, so I re-signed the contract. Afterwards, I resigned.

– Strawberry
2 days ago













Robusto's and fred2's answers don't address a situation which often causes doubt as to whether to write a hyphenated word or two separate words, namely, where the second is an adjective, and the first is an adverb modifying it. This answer to another question might help.

– Rosie F
2 days ago





Robusto's and fred2's answers don't address a situation which often causes doubt as to whether to write a hyphenated word or two separate words, namely, where the second is an adjective, and the first is an adverb modifying it. This answer to another question might help.

– Rosie F
2 days ago










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















16














This is not a question of grammar, but of style. Writers use hyphens with compound adjectives to avoid ambiguity so that the reader does not have to read and re-read a sentence to garner the meaning from it.



Consider:




John was a white bearded man.




Someone might try to parse this sentence at first to mean he was a white man who had a beard.




John was a white-bearded man.




This makes it quite clear that John was a man with a white beard, not a white man with a beard.






share|improve this answer




















  • 2





    So both can mean the same thing, but the other is more precise in its meaning?

    – repomonster
    Mar 15 at 0:58






  • 2





    Yes. Consider hyphenating compound adjectives as providing a courtesy to your readers.

    – Robusto
    Mar 15 at 0:59











  • "John was a white-bearded man" does not rule out the possibility that John was a white man with a white beard.

    – Jasper
    Mar 15 at 1:58






  • 13





    @Jasper: That is irrelevant. The statement does not rule that out, nor does it rule out that he is a criminal or a spendthrift or an asthmatic. The only facts that can be determined from the statement involve his having a white beard. That is unambiguous, and it is everything that modest statement hoped to accomplish.

    – Robusto
    2 days ago











  • @Jasper That's a white red-herring. As opposed to a white-red herring, which is pink. (See also: "There he was left, hand on the wheel" and "there he was, left-hand on the wheel")

    – Chronocidal
    2 days ago



















10














Robusto's answer is correct, I'm just adding another thought.



You asked:




Is this a case of people making a grammatical mistake or are both forms completely correct and it's just a matter of preference?




Robusto didn't quite address that question head on. While there is a lot of flexibility in punctuation, I would say any professional editor worth his or her salt would correct 'white bearded' to 'white-bearded'. Leaving out the hyphen is not optional.



Yes, in informal contexts, writers very often leave out the hyphens, either because they are unsure how to use them, or they forget. But that's not the same as saying they are optional. They are making a mistake which can lead to misunderstandings, and knowing how and why to use hyphens in compound adjectives places you at an advantage.



Finally, often with punctuation, we say "well, it doesn't exist in spoken English, so is it really required?"



But in spoken English there is an audible difference between




The white, bearded man.




and




The white-bearded man.




It's subtle, but it's there, and it makes all the difference to the interpretation of the sentence.






share|improve this answer























  • The audible difference is that, in the former, there is a short pause which is absent in the latter.

    – John Bentin
    2 days ago











  • @JohnBentin Agreed, and I would add that I wouldn’t think of the comma as necessarily representing the pause or vice versa. I think the comma and the pause serve the same purpose: distinction.

    – Chase Ryan Taylor
    2 days ago












  • "But in spoken English there is an audible difference between" Although I did once spend a few moments wondering what a "blackhead coach" is due to an announcer's poor prosody.

    – Acccumulation
    2 days ago










Your Answer








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2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes








2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









16














This is not a question of grammar, but of style. Writers use hyphens with compound adjectives to avoid ambiguity so that the reader does not have to read and re-read a sentence to garner the meaning from it.



Consider:




John was a white bearded man.




Someone might try to parse this sentence at first to mean he was a white man who had a beard.




John was a white-bearded man.




This makes it quite clear that John was a man with a white beard, not a white man with a beard.






share|improve this answer




















  • 2





    So both can mean the same thing, but the other is more precise in its meaning?

    – repomonster
    Mar 15 at 0:58






  • 2





    Yes. Consider hyphenating compound adjectives as providing a courtesy to your readers.

    – Robusto
    Mar 15 at 0:59











  • "John was a white-bearded man" does not rule out the possibility that John was a white man with a white beard.

    – Jasper
    Mar 15 at 1:58






  • 13





    @Jasper: That is irrelevant. The statement does not rule that out, nor does it rule out that he is a criminal or a spendthrift or an asthmatic. The only facts that can be determined from the statement involve his having a white beard. That is unambiguous, and it is everything that modest statement hoped to accomplish.

    – Robusto
    2 days ago











  • @Jasper That's a white red-herring. As opposed to a white-red herring, which is pink. (See also: "There he was left, hand on the wheel" and "there he was, left-hand on the wheel")

    – Chronocidal
    2 days ago
















16














This is not a question of grammar, but of style. Writers use hyphens with compound adjectives to avoid ambiguity so that the reader does not have to read and re-read a sentence to garner the meaning from it.



Consider:




John was a white bearded man.




Someone might try to parse this sentence at first to mean he was a white man who had a beard.




John was a white-bearded man.




This makes it quite clear that John was a man with a white beard, not a white man with a beard.






share|improve this answer




















  • 2





    So both can mean the same thing, but the other is more precise in its meaning?

    – repomonster
    Mar 15 at 0:58






  • 2





    Yes. Consider hyphenating compound adjectives as providing a courtesy to your readers.

    – Robusto
    Mar 15 at 0:59











  • "John was a white-bearded man" does not rule out the possibility that John was a white man with a white beard.

    – Jasper
    Mar 15 at 1:58






  • 13





    @Jasper: That is irrelevant. The statement does not rule that out, nor does it rule out that he is a criminal or a spendthrift or an asthmatic. The only facts that can be determined from the statement involve his having a white beard. That is unambiguous, and it is everything that modest statement hoped to accomplish.

    – Robusto
    2 days ago











  • @Jasper That's a white red-herring. As opposed to a white-red herring, which is pink. (See also: "There he was left, hand on the wheel" and "there he was, left-hand on the wheel")

    – Chronocidal
    2 days ago














16












16








16







This is not a question of grammar, but of style. Writers use hyphens with compound adjectives to avoid ambiguity so that the reader does not have to read and re-read a sentence to garner the meaning from it.



Consider:




John was a white bearded man.




Someone might try to parse this sentence at first to mean he was a white man who had a beard.




John was a white-bearded man.




This makes it quite clear that John was a man with a white beard, not a white man with a beard.






share|improve this answer















This is not a question of grammar, but of style. Writers use hyphens with compound adjectives to avoid ambiguity so that the reader does not have to read and re-read a sentence to garner the meaning from it.



Consider:




John was a white bearded man.




Someone might try to parse this sentence at first to mean he was a white man who had a beard.




John was a white-bearded man.




This makes it quite clear that John was a man with a white beard, not a white man with a beard.







share|improve this answer














share|improve this answer



share|improve this answer








edited Mar 15 at 0:58

























answered Mar 15 at 0:57









RobustoRobusto

12.1k23042




12.1k23042







  • 2





    So both can mean the same thing, but the other is more precise in its meaning?

    – repomonster
    Mar 15 at 0:58






  • 2





    Yes. Consider hyphenating compound adjectives as providing a courtesy to your readers.

    – Robusto
    Mar 15 at 0:59











  • "John was a white-bearded man" does not rule out the possibility that John was a white man with a white beard.

    – Jasper
    Mar 15 at 1:58






  • 13





    @Jasper: That is irrelevant. The statement does not rule that out, nor does it rule out that he is a criminal or a spendthrift or an asthmatic. The only facts that can be determined from the statement involve his having a white beard. That is unambiguous, and it is everything that modest statement hoped to accomplish.

    – Robusto
    2 days ago











  • @Jasper That's a white red-herring. As opposed to a white-red herring, which is pink. (See also: "There he was left, hand on the wheel" and "there he was, left-hand on the wheel")

    – Chronocidal
    2 days ago













  • 2





    So both can mean the same thing, but the other is more precise in its meaning?

    – repomonster
    Mar 15 at 0:58






  • 2





    Yes. Consider hyphenating compound adjectives as providing a courtesy to your readers.

    – Robusto
    Mar 15 at 0:59











  • "John was a white-bearded man" does not rule out the possibility that John was a white man with a white beard.

    – Jasper
    Mar 15 at 1:58






  • 13





    @Jasper: That is irrelevant. The statement does not rule that out, nor does it rule out that he is a criminal or a spendthrift or an asthmatic. The only facts that can be determined from the statement involve his having a white beard. That is unambiguous, and it is everything that modest statement hoped to accomplish.

    – Robusto
    2 days ago











  • @Jasper That's a white red-herring. As opposed to a white-red herring, which is pink. (See also: "There he was left, hand on the wheel" and "there he was, left-hand on the wheel")

    – Chronocidal
    2 days ago








2




2





So both can mean the same thing, but the other is more precise in its meaning?

– repomonster
Mar 15 at 0:58





So both can mean the same thing, but the other is more precise in its meaning?

– repomonster
Mar 15 at 0:58




2




2





Yes. Consider hyphenating compound adjectives as providing a courtesy to your readers.

– Robusto
Mar 15 at 0:59





Yes. Consider hyphenating compound adjectives as providing a courtesy to your readers.

– Robusto
Mar 15 at 0:59













"John was a white-bearded man" does not rule out the possibility that John was a white man with a white beard.

– Jasper
Mar 15 at 1:58





"John was a white-bearded man" does not rule out the possibility that John was a white man with a white beard.

– Jasper
Mar 15 at 1:58




13




13





@Jasper: That is irrelevant. The statement does not rule that out, nor does it rule out that he is a criminal or a spendthrift or an asthmatic. The only facts that can be determined from the statement involve his having a white beard. That is unambiguous, and it is everything that modest statement hoped to accomplish.

– Robusto
2 days ago





@Jasper: That is irrelevant. The statement does not rule that out, nor does it rule out that he is a criminal or a spendthrift or an asthmatic. The only facts that can be determined from the statement involve his having a white beard. That is unambiguous, and it is everything that modest statement hoped to accomplish.

– Robusto
2 days ago













@Jasper That's a white red-herring. As opposed to a white-red herring, which is pink. (See also: "There he was left, hand on the wheel" and "there he was, left-hand on the wheel")

– Chronocidal
2 days ago






@Jasper That's a white red-herring. As opposed to a white-red herring, which is pink. (See also: "There he was left, hand on the wheel" and "there he was, left-hand on the wheel")

– Chronocidal
2 days ago














10














Robusto's answer is correct, I'm just adding another thought.



You asked:




Is this a case of people making a grammatical mistake or are both forms completely correct and it's just a matter of preference?




Robusto didn't quite address that question head on. While there is a lot of flexibility in punctuation, I would say any professional editor worth his or her salt would correct 'white bearded' to 'white-bearded'. Leaving out the hyphen is not optional.



Yes, in informal contexts, writers very often leave out the hyphens, either because they are unsure how to use them, or they forget. But that's not the same as saying they are optional. They are making a mistake which can lead to misunderstandings, and knowing how and why to use hyphens in compound adjectives places you at an advantage.



Finally, often with punctuation, we say "well, it doesn't exist in spoken English, so is it really required?"



But in spoken English there is an audible difference between




The white, bearded man.




and




The white-bearded man.




It's subtle, but it's there, and it makes all the difference to the interpretation of the sentence.






share|improve this answer























  • The audible difference is that, in the former, there is a short pause which is absent in the latter.

    – John Bentin
    2 days ago











  • @JohnBentin Agreed, and I would add that I wouldn’t think of the comma as necessarily representing the pause or vice versa. I think the comma and the pause serve the same purpose: distinction.

    – Chase Ryan Taylor
    2 days ago












  • "But in spoken English there is an audible difference between" Although I did once spend a few moments wondering what a "blackhead coach" is due to an announcer's poor prosody.

    – Acccumulation
    2 days ago















10














Robusto's answer is correct, I'm just adding another thought.



You asked:




Is this a case of people making a grammatical mistake or are both forms completely correct and it's just a matter of preference?




Robusto didn't quite address that question head on. While there is a lot of flexibility in punctuation, I would say any professional editor worth his or her salt would correct 'white bearded' to 'white-bearded'. Leaving out the hyphen is not optional.



Yes, in informal contexts, writers very often leave out the hyphens, either because they are unsure how to use them, or they forget. But that's not the same as saying they are optional. They are making a mistake which can lead to misunderstandings, and knowing how and why to use hyphens in compound adjectives places you at an advantage.



Finally, often with punctuation, we say "well, it doesn't exist in spoken English, so is it really required?"



But in spoken English there is an audible difference between




The white, bearded man.




and




The white-bearded man.




It's subtle, but it's there, and it makes all the difference to the interpretation of the sentence.






share|improve this answer























  • The audible difference is that, in the former, there is a short pause which is absent in the latter.

    – John Bentin
    2 days ago











  • @JohnBentin Agreed, and I would add that I wouldn’t think of the comma as necessarily representing the pause or vice versa. I think the comma and the pause serve the same purpose: distinction.

    – Chase Ryan Taylor
    2 days ago












  • "But in spoken English there is an audible difference between" Although I did once spend a few moments wondering what a "blackhead coach" is due to an announcer's poor prosody.

    – Acccumulation
    2 days ago













10












10








10







Robusto's answer is correct, I'm just adding another thought.



You asked:




Is this a case of people making a grammatical mistake or are both forms completely correct and it's just a matter of preference?




Robusto didn't quite address that question head on. While there is a lot of flexibility in punctuation, I would say any professional editor worth his or her salt would correct 'white bearded' to 'white-bearded'. Leaving out the hyphen is not optional.



Yes, in informal contexts, writers very often leave out the hyphens, either because they are unsure how to use them, or they forget. But that's not the same as saying they are optional. They are making a mistake which can lead to misunderstandings, and knowing how and why to use hyphens in compound adjectives places you at an advantage.



Finally, often with punctuation, we say "well, it doesn't exist in spoken English, so is it really required?"



But in spoken English there is an audible difference between




The white, bearded man.




and




The white-bearded man.




It's subtle, but it's there, and it makes all the difference to the interpretation of the sentence.






share|improve this answer













Robusto's answer is correct, I'm just adding another thought.



You asked:




Is this a case of people making a grammatical mistake or are both forms completely correct and it's just a matter of preference?




Robusto didn't quite address that question head on. While there is a lot of flexibility in punctuation, I would say any professional editor worth his or her salt would correct 'white bearded' to 'white-bearded'. Leaving out the hyphen is not optional.



Yes, in informal contexts, writers very often leave out the hyphens, either because they are unsure how to use them, or they forget. But that's not the same as saying they are optional. They are making a mistake which can lead to misunderstandings, and knowing how and why to use hyphens in compound adjectives places you at an advantage.



Finally, often with punctuation, we say "well, it doesn't exist in spoken English, so is it really required?"



But in spoken English there is an audible difference between




The white, bearded man.




and




The white-bearded man.




It's subtle, but it's there, and it makes all the difference to the interpretation of the sentence.







share|improve this answer












share|improve this answer



share|improve this answer










answered Mar 15 at 1:23









fred2fred2

3,097721




3,097721












  • The audible difference is that, in the former, there is a short pause which is absent in the latter.

    – John Bentin
    2 days ago











  • @JohnBentin Agreed, and I would add that I wouldn’t think of the comma as necessarily representing the pause or vice versa. I think the comma and the pause serve the same purpose: distinction.

    – Chase Ryan Taylor
    2 days ago












  • "But in spoken English there is an audible difference between" Although I did once spend a few moments wondering what a "blackhead coach" is due to an announcer's poor prosody.

    – Acccumulation
    2 days ago

















  • The audible difference is that, in the former, there is a short pause which is absent in the latter.

    – John Bentin
    2 days ago











  • @JohnBentin Agreed, and I would add that I wouldn’t think of the comma as necessarily representing the pause or vice versa. I think the comma and the pause serve the same purpose: distinction.

    – Chase Ryan Taylor
    2 days ago












  • "But in spoken English there is an audible difference between" Although I did once spend a few moments wondering what a "blackhead coach" is due to an announcer's poor prosody.

    – Acccumulation
    2 days ago
















The audible difference is that, in the former, there is a short pause which is absent in the latter.

– John Bentin
2 days ago





The audible difference is that, in the former, there is a short pause which is absent in the latter.

– John Bentin
2 days ago













@JohnBentin Agreed, and I would add that I wouldn’t think of the comma as necessarily representing the pause or vice versa. I think the comma and the pause serve the same purpose: distinction.

– Chase Ryan Taylor
2 days ago






@JohnBentin Agreed, and I would add that I wouldn’t think of the comma as necessarily representing the pause or vice versa. I think the comma and the pause serve the same purpose: distinction.

– Chase Ryan Taylor
2 days ago














"But in spoken English there is an audible difference between" Although I did once spend a few moments wondering what a "blackhead coach" is due to an announcer's poor prosody.

– Acccumulation
2 days ago





"But in spoken English there is an audible difference between" Although I did once spend a few moments wondering what a "blackhead coach" is due to an announcer's poor prosody.

– Acccumulation
2 days ago

















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