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Negative correlation but positive beta value


What is the purpose of precision variables?Interpreting negative beta coefficientsPositive correlation and negative regressor coefficient signHow to interpret correlations with negative numbers in SPSSPostive correlation but negative coefficient in regressionIn multiple regression r is positive but the coefficients are negativeHigh correlation between two independent variables, but no multicollinearity?Significance of correlation and regression coefficientsCorrelation when one variable has both positive and negative valuesCorrelation between Y and (x1, x2)What is difference between correlation and simple linear regression (binary dependent variable and continuous independent variable)?













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I got a negative correlation (Pearson correlation) between two variables but a positive beta coefficient of one variable predicting the other in multiple hierarchical linear regression. Is it acceptable? Please justify it with research evidence and literature










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    In addition to the worthy answer by @PeterFlom, you might find my answer to this question illuminating: stats.stackexchange.com/questions/89547/…
    $endgroup$
    – Alexis
    Mar 26 at 17:08






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Also: Welcome to CV!
    $endgroup$
    – Alexis
    Mar 26 at 17:08















1












$begingroup$


I got a negative correlation (Pearson correlation) between two variables but a positive beta coefficient of one variable predicting the other in multiple hierarchical linear regression. Is it acceptable? Please justify it with research evidence and literature










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    In addition to the worthy answer by @PeterFlom, you might find my answer to this question illuminating: stats.stackexchange.com/questions/89547/…
    $endgroup$
    – Alexis
    Mar 26 at 17:08






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Also: Welcome to CV!
    $endgroup$
    – Alexis
    Mar 26 at 17:08













1












1








1





$begingroup$


I got a negative correlation (Pearson correlation) between two variables but a positive beta coefficient of one variable predicting the other in multiple hierarchical linear regression. Is it acceptable? Please justify it with research evidence and literature










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I got a negative correlation (Pearson correlation) between two variables but a positive beta coefficient of one variable predicting the other in multiple hierarchical linear regression. Is it acceptable? Please justify it with research evidence and literature







regression correlation






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Mar 25 at 13:58









Ferdi

3,86742355




3,86742355










asked Mar 25 at 12:15









Aiman RahimAiman Rahim

61




61







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    In addition to the worthy answer by @PeterFlom, you might find my answer to this question illuminating: stats.stackexchange.com/questions/89547/…
    $endgroup$
    – Alexis
    Mar 26 at 17:08






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Also: Welcome to CV!
    $endgroup$
    – Alexis
    Mar 26 at 17:08












  • 1




    $begingroup$
    In addition to the worthy answer by @PeterFlom, you might find my answer to this question illuminating: stats.stackexchange.com/questions/89547/…
    $endgroup$
    – Alexis
    Mar 26 at 17:08






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Also: Welcome to CV!
    $endgroup$
    – Alexis
    Mar 26 at 17:08







1




1




$begingroup$
In addition to the worthy answer by @PeterFlom, you might find my answer to this question illuminating: stats.stackexchange.com/questions/89547/…
$endgroup$
– Alexis
Mar 26 at 17:08




$begingroup$
In addition to the worthy answer by @PeterFlom, you might find my answer to this question illuminating: stats.stackexchange.com/questions/89547/…
$endgroup$
– Alexis
Mar 26 at 17:08




1




1




$begingroup$
Also: Welcome to CV!
$endgroup$
– Alexis
Mar 26 at 17:08




$begingroup$
Also: Welcome to CV!
$endgroup$
– Alexis
Mar 26 at 17:08










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















5












$begingroup$

There is no reason that this is not possible. It follows from the nature of multiple regression, which controls for variables, which correlation does not do. See any decent book on multiple regression.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Thank you for the helpful insight
    $endgroup$
    – Aiman Rahim
    Mar 25 at 12:23











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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









5












$begingroup$

There is no reason that this is not possible. It follows from the nature of multiple regression, which controls for variables, which correlation does not do. See any decent book on multiple regression.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Thank you for the helpful insight
    $endgroup$
    – Aiman Rahim
    Mar 25 at 12:23















5












$begingroup$

There is no reason that this is not possible. It follows from the nature of multiple regression, which controls for variables, which correlation does not do. See any decent book on multiple regression.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Thank you for the helpful insight
    $endgroup$
    – Aiman Rahim
    Mar 25 at 12:23













5












5








5





$begingroup$

There is no reason that this is not possible. It follows from the nature of multiple regression, which controls for variables, which correlation does not do. See any decent book on multiple regression.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



There is no reason that this is not possible. It follows from the nature of multiple regression, which controls for variables, which correlation does not do. See any decent book on multiple regression.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Mar 25 at 12:21









Peter FlomPeter Flom

76.9k12109214




76.9k12109214











  • $begingroup$
    Thank you for the helpful insight
    $endgroup$
    – Aiman Rahim
    Mar 25 at 12:23
















  • $begingroup$
    Thank you for the helpful insight
    $endgroup$
    – Aiman Rahim
    Mar 25 at 12:23















$begingroup$
Thank you for the helpful insight
$endgroup$
– Aiman Rahim
Mar 25 at 12:23




$begingroup$
Thank you for the helpful insight
$endgroup$
– Aiman Rahim
Mar 25 at 12:23

















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