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Negative correlation but positive beta value
What is the purpose of precision variables?Interpreting negative beta coefficientsPositive correlation and negative regressor coefficient signHow to interpret correlations with negative numbers in SPSSPostive correlation but negative coefficient in regressionIn multiple regression r is positive but the coefficients are negativeHigh correlation between two independent variables, but no multicollinearity?Significance of correlation and regression coefficientsCorrelation when one variable has both positive and negative valuesCorrelation between Y and (x1, x2)What is difference between correlation and simple linear regression (binary dependent variable and continuous independent variable)?
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I got a negative correlation (Pearson correlation) between two variables but a positive beta coefficient of one variable predicting the other in multiple hierarchical linear regression. Is it acceptable? Please justify it with research evidence and literature
regression correlation
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
I got a negative correlation (Pearson correlation) between two variables but a positive beta coefficient of one variable predicting the other in multiple hierarchical linear regression. Is it acceptable? Please justify it with research evidence and literature
regression correlation
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1
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In addition to the worthy answer by @PeterFlom, you might find my answer to this question illuminating: stats.stackexchange.com/questions/89547/…
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– Alexis
Mar 26 at 17:08
1
$begingroup$
Also: Welcome to CV!
$endgroup$
– Alexis
Mar 26 at 17:08
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I got a negative correlation (Pearson correlation) between two variables but a positive beta coefficient of one variable predicting the other in multiple hierarchical linear regression. Is it acceptable? Please justify it with research evidence and literature
regression correlation
$endgroup$
I got a negative correlation (Pearson correlation) between two variables but a positive beta coefficient of one variable predicting the other in multiple hierarchical linear regression. Is it acceptable? Please justify it with research evidence and literature
regression correlation
regression correlation
edited Mar 25 at 13:58
Ferdi
3,86742355
3,86742355
asked Mar 25 at 12:15
Aiman RahimAiman Rahim
61
61
1
$begingroup$
In addition to the worthy answer by @PeterFlom, you might find my answer to this question illuminating: stats.stackexchange.com/questions/89547/…
$endgroup$
– Alexis
Mar 26 at 17:08
1
$begingroup$
Also: Welcome to CV!
$endgroup$
– Alexis
Mar 26 at 17:08
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
In addition to the worthy answer by @PeterFlom, you might find my answer to this question illuminating: stats.stackexchange.com/questions/89547/…
$endgroup$
– Alexis
Mar 26 at 17:08
1
$begingroup$
Also: Welcome to CV!
$endgroup$
– Alexis
Mar 26 at 17:08
1
1
$begingroup$
In addition to the worthy answer by @PeterFlom, you might find my answer to this question illuminating: stats.stackexchange.com/questions/89547/…
$endgroup$
– Alexis
Mar 26 at 17:08
$begingroup$
In addition to the worthy answer by @PeterFlom, you might find my answer to this question illuminating: stats.stackexchange.com/questions/89547/…
$endgroup$
– Alexis
Mar 26 at 17:08
1
1
$begingroup$
Also: Welcome to CV!
$endgroup$
– Alexis
Mar 26 at 17:08
$begingroup$
Also: Welcome to CV!
$endgroup$
– Alexis
Mar 26 at 17:08
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
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There is no reason that this is not possible. It follows from the nature of multiple regression, which controls for variables, which correlation does not do. See any decent book on multiple regression.
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$begingroup$
Thank you for the helpful insight
$endgroup$
– Aiman Rahim
Mar 25 at 12:23
add a comment |
Your Answer
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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$begingroup$
There is no reason that this is not possible. It follows from the nature of multiple regression, which controls for variables, which correlation does not do. See any decent book on multiple regression.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thank you for the helpful insight
$endgroup$
– Aiman Rahim
Mar 25 at 12:23
add a comment |
$begingroup$
There is no reason that this is not possible. It follows from the nature of multiple regression, which controls for variables, which correlation does not do. See any decent book on multiple regression.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thank you for the helpful insight
$endgroup$
– Aiman Rahim
Mar 25 at 12:23
add a comment |
$begingroup$
There is no reason that this is not possible. It follows from the nature of multiple regression, which controls for variables, which correlation does not do. See any decent book on multiple regression.
$endgroup$
There is no reason that this is not possible. It follows from the nature of multiple regression, which controls for variables, which correlation does not do. See any decent book on multiple regression.
answered Mar 25 at 12:21
Peter Flom♦Peter Flom
76.9k12109214
76.9k12109214
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Thank you for the helpful insight
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– Aiman Rahim
Mar 25 at 12:23
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Thank you for the helpful insight
$endgroup$
– Aiman Rahim
Mar 25 at 12:23
$begingroup$
Thank you for the helpful insight
$endgroup$
– Aiman Rahim
Mar 25 at 12:23
$begingroup$
Thank you for the helpful insight
$endgroup$
– Aiman Rahim
Mar 25 at 12:23
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
In addition to the worthy answer by @PeterFlom, you might find my answer to this question illuminating: stats.stackexchange.com/questions/89547/…
$endgroup$
– Alexis
Mar 26 at 17:08
1
$begingroup$
Also: Welcome to CV!
$endgroup$
– Alexis
Mar 26 at 17:08