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What is the significance behind "40 days" that often appears in the Bible?

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What is the significance behind “40 days” that often appears in the Bible?


Is the Bible considered a reliable historical resource?In the context of Ancient Egypt, what could “Priest of On” mean?Is there any evidence that the book of Isaiah was written before Cyrus?Can the historical records in the Bible be considered as accurate/factual records?What is the proper term for the “year 0”?What is the historical basis for the Exodus?How long did it take to rewrite the Bible during the early propagation of the Christian faith?What's the story behind the making of the Complutensian Polyglot Bible?Did the discovery of zero affect our calendar and how we count days? Are we off by a tenth?Was Freud the first to say that Judaism borrowed from Atenism?













36















Several times within the Old and New Testament of the Bible there are notes pertaining to a long time as "40 days," as in 40 days of fasting, rain, traveling, etc. Why 40? Is there a factual association? The only thing I've noticed are references to 40 days needed for mummification in natron. Any insight? Thanks!










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  • 4





    Answers have concentrated on why use a specific number at all, or have simply given further examples of its use but I understood the question to be why use this particular one. Did it have any numerological significance? Did it sound like something else? Was it a round number in any early counting system (as it would be in Europe where it was normal at one stage to count in 20s (e.g. French quatre-vingt=4x20=80) so 40 would actually be a rounder number than 50)? Was it a month in any early calendar? Etc.

    – David Robinson
    2 days ago






  • 2





    Egyptians, who greatly influenced biblical Judaism (e.g., Rosh Hashanah vs. Thout 1), had ten day weeks, and their mummification process lasted about forty days (see Egyptian mummies and ancient Egyptian mummification process).

    – Lucian
    2 days ago






  • 2





    This is a much better fit for Christianity or Biblical Hermeneutics.

    – jpmc26
    5 hours ago







  • 1





    I think it's an early instance of six to eight weeks.

    – leftaroundabout
    5 hours ago






  • 1





    Biblical Hermeneutics is the perfect place for this type of question AFAICT. Getting objective, historical answers about the abstract meaning of a number (essentially numerology) may not be possible here.

    – JacobIRR
    4 hours ago















36















Several times within the Old and New Testament of the Bible there are notes pertaining to a long time as "40 days," as in 40 days of fasting, rain, traveling, etc. Why 40? Is there a factual association? The only thing I've noticed are references to 40 days needed for mummification in natron. Any insight? Thanks!










share|improve this question









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Ron P is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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  • 4





    Answers have concentrated on why use a specific number at all, or have simply given further examples of its use but I understood the question to be why use this particular one. Did it have any numerological significance? Did it sound like something else? Was it a round number in any early counting system (as it would be in Europe where it was normal at one stage to count in 20s (e.g. French quatre-vingt=4x20=80) so 40 would actually be a rounder number than 50)? Was it a month in any early calendar? Etc.

    – David Robinson
    2 days ago






  • 2





    Egyptians, who greatly influenced biblical Judaism (e.g., Rosh Hashanah vs. Thout 1), had ten day weeks, and their mummification process lasted about forty days (see Egyptian mummies and ancient Egyptian mummification process).

    – Lucian
    2 days ago






  • 2





    This is a much better fit for Christianity or Biblical Hermeneutics.

    – jpmc26
    5 hours ago







  • 1





    I think it's an early instance of six to eight weeks.

    – leftaroundabout
    5 hours ago






  • 1





    Biblical Hermeneutics is the perfect place for this type of question AFAICT. Getting objective, historical answers about the abstract meaning of a number (essentially numerology) may not be possible here.

    – JacobIRR
    4 hours ago













36












36








36


3






Several times within the Old and New Testament of the Bible there are notes pertaining to a long time as "40 days," as in 40 days of fasting, rain, traveling, etc. Why 40? Is there a factual association? The only thing I've noticed are references to 40 days needed for mummification in natron. Any insight? Thanks!










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Ron P is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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Several times within the Old and New Testament of the Bible there are notes pertaining to a long time as "40 days," as in 40 days of fasting, rain, traveling, etc. Why 40? Is there a factual association? The only thing I've noticed are references to 40 days needed for mummification in natron. Any insight? Thanks!







bible religious-history timeline






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edited 13 hours ago









Rodrigo de Azevedo

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asked 2 days ago









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  • 4





    Answers have concentrated on why use a specific number at all, or have simply given further examples of its use but I understood the question to be why use this particular one. Did it have any numerological significance? Did it sound like something else? Was it a round number in any early counting system (as it would be in Europe where it was normal at one stage to count in 20s (e.g. French quatre-vingt=4x20=80) so 40 would actually be a rounder number than 50)? Was it a month in any early calendar? Etc.

    – David Robinson
    2 days ago






  • 2





    Egyptians, who greatly influenced biblical Judaism (e.g., Rosh Hashanah vs. Thout 1), had ten day weeks, and their mummification process lasted about forty days (see Egyptian mummies and ancient Egyptian mummification process).

    – Lucian
    2 days ago






  • 2





    This is a much better fit for Christianity or Biblical Hermeneutics.

    – jpmc26
    5 hours ago







  • 1





    I think it's an early instance of six to eight weeks.

    – leftaroundabout
    5 hours ago






  • 1





    Biblical Hermeneutics is the perfect place for this type of question AFAICT. Getting objective, historical answers about the abstract meaning of a number (essentially numerology) may not be possible here.

    – JacobIRR
    4 hours ago












  • 4





    Answers have concentrated on why use a specific number at all, or have simply given further examples of its use but I understood the question to be why use this particular one. Did it have any numerological significance? Did it sound like something else? Was it a round number in any early counting system (as it would be in Europe where it was normal at one stage to count in 20s (e.g. French quatre-vingt=4x20=80) so 40 would actually be a rounder number than 50)? Was it a month in any early calendar? Etc.

    – David Robinson
    2 days ago






  • 2





    Egyptians, who greatly influenced biblical Judaism (e.g., Rosh Hashanah vs. Thout 1), had ten day weeks, and their mummification process lasted about forty days (see Egyptian mummies and ancient Egyptian mummification process).

    – Lucian
    2 days ago






  • 2





    This is a much better fit for Christianity or Biblical Hermeneutics.

    – jpmc26
    5 hours ago







  • 1





    I think it's an early instance of six to eight weeks.

    – leftaroundabout
    5 hours ago






  • 1





    Biblical Hermeneutics is the perfect place for this type of question AFAICT. Getting objective, historical answers about the abstract meaning of a number (essentially numerology) may not be possible here.

    – JacobIRR
    4 hours ago







4




4





Answers have concentrated on why use a specific number at all, or have simply given further examples of its use but I understood the question to be why use this particular one. Did it have any numerological significance? Did it sound like something else? Was it a round number in any early counting system (as it would be in Europe where it was normal at one stage to count in 20s (e.g. French quatre-vingt=4x20=80) so 40 would actually be a rounder number than 50)? Was it a month in any early calendar? Etc.

– David Robinson
2 days ago





Answers have concentrated on why use a specific number at all, or have simply given further examples of its use but I understood the question to be why use this particular one. Did it have any numerological significance? Did it sound like something else? Was it a round number in any early counting system (as it would be in Europe where it was normal at one stage to count in 20s (e.g. French quatre-vingt=4x20=80) so 40 would actually be a rounder number than 50)? Was it a month in any early calendar? Etc.

– David Robinson
2 days ago




2




2





Egyptians, who greatly influenced biblical Judaism (e.g., Rosh Hashanah vs. Thout 1), had ten day weeks, and their mummification process lasted about forty days (see Egyptian mummies and ancient Egyptian mummification process).

– Lucian
2 days ago





Egyptians, who greatly influenced biblical Judaism (e.g., Rosh Hashanah vs. Thout 1), had ten day weeks, and their mummification process lasted about forty days (see Egyptian mummies and ancient Egyptian mummification process).

– Lucian
2 days ago




2




2





This is a much better fit for Christianity or Biblical Hermeneutics.

– jpmc26
5 hours ago






This is a much better fit for Christianity or Biblical Hermeneutics.

– jpmc26
5 hours ago





1




1





I think it's an early instance of six to eight weeks.

– leftaroundabout
5 hours ago





I think it's an early instance of six to eight weeks.

– leftaroundabout
5 hours ago




1




1





Biblical Hermeneutics is the perfect place for this type of question AFAICT. Getting objective, historical answers about the abstract meaning of a number (essentially numerology) may not be possible here.

– JacobIRR
4 hours ago





Biblical Hermeneutics is the perfect place for this type of question AFAICT. Getting objective, historical answers about the abstract meaning of a number (essentially numerology) may not be possible here.

– JacobIRR
4 hours ago










6 Answers
6






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51














I believe it to be an euphemism similar to how today one might say something like gazillions for a large number.



In a society that is mostly innumerate as well as illiterate, where neither pencils nor paper exist and both slateboards and chalk are fragile and rare, the scale of numbers readily accessible to the common population are much smaller than today. The meaning of 40 to me comes across as: "longer than a month, and more days than one would care to count"; or as Wikepedia puts it in that link:




similar to "umpteen".





There is push-back in the comments about my use of the word euphemism above. I stand by that usage. The 1928 edition of the Oxford English Dictionary provides, as an exemplification of (proper) usage, the following from Fur Animals: by Eliott Coues, 1877: (p. 216, start of paragraph)




The skunk yields a handsome fur, lately become fashionable, under the euphemism of Alaska Sable - for our elegant dames would surely not deck themselves in obscene Skunk skins if they were not permitted to call the rose by some other name.




The softening of an exact, possibly estimated, number by the more general and de-nerded forty seems quite inline with Coues' usage.




In a discussion below it became clear to me that I have relied above on a physicist's deep distinction between Accuracy and precision - without making that explicit.



In the context of this discussion, one might regard precision as the choice between hours, days, weeks and months as the unit of measure. Accuracy would be the determination of whether, in the unit of measure chosen, the value specified is the most correct possible, in that unit of measure.



SO the use of the phrase "forty days" appears to be specified with an accuracy determined in days; but actually intends, by convention, an accuracy in months. It means:



"many days, longer than a month, but shorter than many months".



Retaining the connotation of "many" above is important to imbue the sense of "trial" described below by David:




enough time passed for God to achieve a goal. Fullness of time.




Conveniently the number of days in a month (29 or 30) and the number of years in a generation (25 to 30) are close enough so that the quantity 40 is situated comfortably above one and below two such, and is a multiple of 10. This makes it particularly suited to the usage described above, whether days/months or years/generations are the units of measure at issue.






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  • Comments are not for extended discussion; this conversation has been moved to chat.

    – sempaiscuba
    15 hours ago


















43














There seems to be a bit of pushback on Pieter's (correct) answer, so perhaps a bit more detail is in order.



It is not at all uncommon in languages to have words that, while technically a specific number, are usually used just to indicate an unspecified large amount. One of the technical terms for this is non-numerical vague quantifiers.



The most well-known of these is of course the Hebrew Bible's "40", but they also had a word for an even larger indeterminate number: רבבה. This word came into English (via Greek) as "myriad", but the technical literal value for it is 10,000.



Probably the next most famous for us English speakers is 1,001, which came into English from the Arabic work 1,001 Nights (which usually doesn't contain exactly 1,001 stories, unless you get an edition that purposely tried to edit to that amount for some weird reason). You can find all kinds of English-language books with titles on the theme "1,001 Uses For...", and nobody really expects those to contain exactly 1,001 of the thing in question.



Now most secular (and mainline Christian) Biblical scholars will tell you that the earliest written source for the Hebrew scriptures (including the story of Noah that prominently featured the indeterminate 40) committed the stories to writing around the 6th Century BC.



This was about 4 centuries before the Hebrews started using their distinctive Greek-borrowed numeric system (which resembles Roman Numerals a bit in implementation). At that time the numeric system in use would have been the old Babylonian Sexagesimal system. This survives today mostly in our units of time and angle "degree" (and thus Earth surface coordinate) measurements. This was technically a hybrid base 60 system, but represented with a weird base 10 tally system within the 60.



enter image description here



If that sounds complicated to you, you're probably still better off than the common Semite, who as Pieter pointed out, probably didn't really know how to read or use this system themselves beyond the bare basics required for everyday life. Doing reckoning under this system was much harder than what we have today, and there was no equivalent to the modern western education system, where every child gets basic mathematics instruction. Working with numbers that high was difficult, and very few in the audience of these stories would have been trained to do so.



You may notice that the superglyph for 40 specifically is the first one where there isn't enough space for all the 10's tallies on one line, so you have to start compressing them together into 2 lines in the same amount of space. Perhaps its a coincidence, but this is certainly the point where the writing/carving for numbers starts to look like a bit of a mess. Its a lot.






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  • That's really interesting. Any thoughts on how this relates to New Testament (Greek) use of 40?

    – vbnet3d
    2 days ago






  • 3





    @vbnet3d - Given that the other known users of this "indeterminate 40" (early Christians, Muslims, and Yazidis) all came later and were influenced heavily by the Hebrew scriptures, the logical conclusion is that they borrowed it. Its also possible this was just a widespread aspect of the regional culture that they all inherited.

    – T.E.D.
    2 days ago







  • 2





    Have you back-checked how often other numbers appear in the text? 3, 4, 7, 12, 13, 50, 70? OT and NT concordances are different for "40". But especially in OT this interpretation is not incorrect, imo in more than two ways, but this A looks only at just one aspect. My 2 cents.

    – LangLangC
    2 days ago


















7














Biblically, Forty is a number associated with testing and trials
https://www.thoughtco.com/biblical-numerology-700168



Jesus wandered in the wilderness 40 days, Israel wandered in the desert for 40 years etc.



It's a number that indicates enough time passed for God to achieve a goal. Fullness of time.






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    3














    In this answer I'll take a literary approach, aiming less at the surrounding historical context and more at an internal analysis of what "significance" the document's authors intended to convey.1



    We can make one observation in line with the previous answers, namely that it is almost certainly not a literal but a symbolic number. There are at least three numbers that come up too often and at too useful a time to be coincidence: 7 / 70 (completeness; the root is related to "satiate"), 12 / 144 (traditional number of tribes of Israel, frequently recurrent), and of course 40. In that sense, it is indeed an "indeterminate" number in that one is not interested in the exact value.



    But we can also make the observation that though it may stand for an indeterminate number, it's not exactly an "indeterminately large number" in the sense of "more than one would care to count". The Bible is well aware that 40 is too small a unit for such purposes, and for big, vague numbers it prefers rounded-off hundreds, thousands, tens of thousands, or even hundreds of thousands (Deut 32:30, Josh 23:10, 1 Chron. 12:14, Judges 15:16, Psalm 91:7, 1 Sam. 13:2, 2 Sam. 18:3, Lev. 26:8, 1 Sam. 15:4, Num. 11:21, NT Rev. 7:4, etc.). Hence, reading "gazillions" or even "umpteen" for the biblical 40 seems to miss the mark.2



    So does 40 simply mean "an indeterminate small number"? Maybe. After all, it's probably around as small as you can get and still be indeterminate! But I think the Bible has a narrower use for it. There is indeterminacy, but that's not the force of the biblical use.



    One important note is that it's almost always a period of time. (One rare exception is the number of se'ahs in a mikvah; note that this correspondence is only established by extrabiblical tradition.)



    When speaking of years, some instances: The Israelites wandered in the desert 40 years, with the explicit effect being that a whole generation died off (Num. 32:13). Moses fled Egypt at 40 years old (Acts 7:23) and returned 40 years after that (Acts 7:30). Some patriarchs married at 40, including Isaac (Gen. 25:20) and Esau (Gen 26:34). More than one king is said to have ruled for 40 years (e.g. 1 Sam. 4:18). In Jewish tradition, a person is allowed to study the Kabbalah at 40.3



    When speaking of days, some instances: Noah's rain fell for 40 days and nights (Gen. 7:4); the spies explored Canaan for 40 days (Num. 13:25); Goliath taunted the Israelites for 40 days (1 Sam 17:16); Moses thrice spent 40 days and nights on Mount Sinai (Deut. 9:11, 9:25, 10:10); Elijah took a journey of 40 days to Mount Horeb (1 Kings 19:8). Embalming a corpse required forty days (Gen 50:3) — cp. your note on natron. In the NT, borrowing from this tradition, Jesus spends 40 days in the wilderness (Matt 4:2) and sticks around for 40 days after resurrection (Acts 1:3).



    I would thus offer an interpretation for "40 years" as a single generation in the sense of having lived a full life (in ancient terms!): you are not just the nominal "adult" of your 12/13 years at bat mitzvah or bar mitzvah, but have lived the whole span that most adults enjoy and acquired a certain measure of wisdom and experience by doing so. This fits with the marriages mentioned above; 40 would be a rather old marriage in ancient times, but if it means "having accrued the fullness of age", it makes sense. (As a corrolary, your time is over and it's now your children's time.) It's a unit, a mini-epoch, a building block in a history or geneaology of a nation — which is the sort of thing the Bible is deeply concerned with, even symbolically.



    Meanwhile, for "40 days" we can extend and miniaturize that meaning: it's a significant block of time within an average lifespan. We might say that 40 days is to a person's lifetime what 40 years is to a nation's history: a unit of time big enough to mark a change or a significant event.4



    Wikipedia tells me this reading is corroborated by Michael Coogan.5 Other commentators, such as Ellicott in the 19th century, identified the number as one indicating "trial and patience", which fits well with the idea of a significant event (but doesn't agree with my focusing on a generation). Meanwhile, the Pulpit Commentary (also 19th century) cites Trench that it's sometimes a "signature of penalty, affliction" and confession of sin, and other times a sign that "work is completely [and thoroughly] done". To me this reinforces the idea of a whole "unit" of time, whether that unit is characterized by trial or by simple "fullness".




    1 Without any reference to "hidden" significance, i.e. numerological or mystical interpretations.



    2 T.E.D.'s explanation comes closer, but seems to miss the point when citing the word רְבָבָה revavah. This word stems from the root רבב r-b-b meaning "to multiply, to become many", and is a good candidate for "indeterminately large number". Wiktionary and other dictionaries' gloss "10,000" does not refer to the "technical, literal value" of revavah but to precisely the figurative value "10,000" carried in early translations such as the KJV.



    3 Although, as the linked article notes, this appears to be only ambiguously supported by the Talmud.



    4 In sacred matters, the Bible does sometimes use the metaphor of a person for a nation, particularly the Israelite nation.



    5 Michael David Coogan, A Brief Introduction to the Old Testament: The Hebrew Bible in Its Context, Oxford, 2008, p. 116.






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    • This would be improved by some references: at present, you only cite a number not mentioned in the question.

      – TimLymington
      9 hours ago











    • @TimLymington Fair enough. I've added 40 references.

      – Luke Sawczak
      9 hours ago






    • 1





      It would be good for the downvoter to give an explanation: Does s/he find the arguments unconvincing? Are the references lacking? The tone grating? Is the premise doubtful that a study of a biblical term is at least a partly literary question to be answered internally in documents?

      – Luke Sawczak
      9 hours ago












    • You might benefit from researching the scientific distinction between precision and accuracy. It is quite possible for the description "forty days" to be accurate even when it is not precise to the day. It would describe a period of time longer than 1 month, but also clearly less than two months - in a context where it is not necessary to know the exact number of days.

      – Pieter Geerkens
      8 hours ago











    • @PieterGeerkens I consider that there are cases where it's intended to be neither precise nor accurate. I'd've thought we were on the same page about it sometimes not throwing in the range of 1–2 months, or the analogous number of years!

      – Luke Sawczak
      7 hours ago


















    0














    Babylonians used a sexagesimal base 60 numbering system. 40/60= 66.6% the number of the beast. It represents sorrow.



    Unfortunately two out of three is bad, but more correctly not bad but evil. Using witch speak and wordplay the last part of the sentence is omitted to be deceptive.






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    • Nitpick: 40/60= 66.66666666666666666...% so not really the number of the beast. Anyway, I don't think this really does much to answer the question that was asked.

      – Steve Bird
      8 hours ago











    • @SteveBird Moreover, this mathematical analysis is anachronistic.

      – Luke Sawczak
      3 hours ago


















    0















    Question:

    What is the significance behind “40 days” that often appears in the Bible?




    The significance isn't in the actual number. That's modern bias. The significance is in the collection of 146 uses of the number 40 in the Bible.



    Numbers in the Bible aren't meant to convey literal meaning but used to demonstrate the greater message behind the story. We live in a world where understanding and greater meaning comes from quantify-able observation. The Bible was written before this time when real world events were believed to obscured the greater meaning of events (Plato) or the real meaning of events had to be decreed through intuitive means prior to making observations (Aristotle).




    Plato's Cave Allegory
    Plato claimed that knowledge gained through the senses is no more than opinion and that, in order to have real knowledge, we must gain it through philosophical reasoning. In the Allegory of the Cave, Plato distinguishes between people who mistake sensory knowledge for the truth and people who really do see the truth.




    .




    Aristotelian physics - Aristotle's principles were not based on controlled, quantitative experiments, so they do not describe our universe in the precise, quantitative way now expected of science.




    We live in the world influenced by Galileo and his approach where observed numbers are what determine meaning. We live in a world biased by numbers and thus biblical times are counter intuitive to us as much as our world would be counter intuitive to biblical writers.




    History of scientific method

    During the period of religious conservatism brought about by the Reformation and Counter-Reformation, Galileo Galilei unveiled his new science of motion. Neither the contents of Galileo’s science, nor the methods of study he selected were in keeping with Aristotelian teachings. Whereas Aristotle thought that a science should be demonstrated from first principles, Galileo had used experiments as a research tool.




    The Bible was written in the ages when Plato and Aristotle's ideals dominated disciplined educated minds. The age when the real meaning of events was not decreeable through observation. Numbers as representations of events were not persuasive or interesting but deemed dangerous. So rather than attempt to relay actual numbers for events, numbers are used in the Bible to link like events and convey the greater meaning behind the story or event. As David said, 40 is generally used in the bible to symbolize a period of testing, trial, or probation. from Moses, Jonah, Ezekiel and Jesus 40, appears 146 times in scripture in stories and events with this reoccurring theme.



    • Moses crosses the Sinai Peninsula in 40 years after leading his people out of Egypt.


    • Mosses spends 40 years in Egypt before leading the exodus.


    • Mosses spends 40 days and nights on Mount Sinai to receive the 10 commandments.


    • Ezekiel lays on his right side for 40 days to symbolize Judah's sin.


    • Jonah warns Nineveh for 40 days of it's destruction.


    • It rained for 40 days and nights flooding the world to float Noah's Arch.


    • After being baptized by John, Jesus fasted for 40 days and nights in the desert.


    etc...



    Sources:



    • Meaning of Numbers in the Bible

    • History of Scientific Method (Galileo_Galilei)

    • Plato's Cave Allegory

    • Allegory of the Cave from Plato, Summary and Meaning

    • Aristotelian Physics





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      6 Answers
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      6 Answers
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      51














      I believe it to be an euphemism similar to how today one might say something like gazillions for a large number.



      In a society that is mostly innumerate as well as illiterate, where neither pencils nor paper exist and both slateboards and chalk are fragile and rare, the scale of numbers readily accessible to the common population are much smaller than today. The meaning of 40 to me comes across as: "longer than a month, and more days than one would care to count"; or as Wikepedia puts it in that link:




      similar to "umpteen".





      There is push-back in the comments about my use of the word euphemism above. I stand by that usage. The 1928 edition of the Oxford English Dictionary provides, as an exemplification of (proper) usage, the following from Fur Animals: by Eliott Coues, 1877: (p. 216, start of paragraph)




      The skunk yields a handsome fur, lately become fashionable, under the euphemism of Alaska Sable - for our elegant dames would surely not deck themselves in obscene Skunk skins if they were not permitted to call the rose by some other name.




      The softening of an exact, possibly estimated, number by the more general and de-nerded forty seems quite inline with Coues' usage.




      In a discussion below it became clear to me that I have relied above on a physicist's deep distinction between Accuracy and precision - without making that explicit.



      In the context of this discussion, one might regard precision as the choice between hours, days, weeks and months as the unit of measure. Accuracy would be the determination of whether, in the unit of measure chosen, the value specified is the most correct possible, in that unit of measure.



      SO the use of the phrase "forty days" appears to be specified with an accuracy determined in days; but actually intends, by convention, an accuracy in months. It means:



      "many days, longer than a month, but shorter than many months".



      Retaining the connotation of "many" above is important to imbue the sense of "trial" described below by David:




      enough time passed for God to achieve a goal. Fullness of time.




      Conveniently the number of days in a month (29 or 30) and the number of years in a generation (25 to 30) are close enough so that the quantity 40 is situated comfortably above one and below two such, and is a multiple of 10. This makes it particularly suited to the usage described above, whether days/months or years/generations are the units of measure at issue.






      share|improve this answer

























      • Comments are not for extended discussion; this conversation has been moved to chat.

        – sempaiscuba
        15 hours ago















      51














      I believe it to be an euphemism similar to how today one might say something like gazillions for a large number.



      In a society that is mostly innumerate as well as illiterate, where neither pencils nor paper exist and both slateboards and chalk are fragile and rare, the scale of numbers readily accessible to the common population are much smaller than today. The meaning of 40 to me comes across as: "longer than a month, and more days than one would care to count"; or as Wikepedia puts it in that link:




      similar to "umpteen".





      There is push-back in the comments about my use of the word euphemism above. I stand by that usage. The 1928 edition of the Oxford English Dictionary provides, as an exemplification of (proper) usage, the following from Fur Animals: by Eliott Coues, 1877: (p. 216, start of paragraph)




      The skunk yields a handsome fur, lately become fashionable, under the euphemism of Alaska Sable - for our elegant dames would surely not deck themselves in obscene Skunk skins if they were not permitted to call the rose by some other name.




      The softening of an exact, possibly estimated, number by the more general and de-nerded forty seems quite inline with Coues' usage.




      In a discussion below it became clear to me that I have relied above on a physicist's deep distinction between Accuracy and precision - without making that explicit.



      In the context of this discussion, one might regard precision as the choice between hours, days, weeks and months as the unit of measure. Accuracy would be the determination of whether, in the unit of measure chosen, the value specified is the most correct possible, in that unit of measure.



      SO the use of the phrase "forty days" appears to be specified with an accuracy determined in days; but actually intends, by convention, an accuracy in months. It means:



      "many days, longer than a month, but shorter than many months".



      Retaining the connotation of "many" above is important to imbue the sense of "trial" described below by David:




      enough time passed for God to achieve a goal. Fullness of time.




      Conveniently the number of days in a month (29 or 30) and the number of years in a generation (25 to 30) are close enough so that the quantity 40 is situated comfortably above one and below two such, and is a multiple of 10. This makes it particularly suited to the usage described above, whether days/months or years/generations are the units of measure at issue.






      share|improve this answer

























      • Comments are not for extended discussion; this conversation has been moved to chat.

        – sempaiscuba
        15 hours ago













      51












      51








      51







      I believe it to be an euphemism similar to how today one might say something like gazillions for a large number.



      In a society that is mostly innumerate as well as illiterate, where neither pencils nor paper exist and both slateboards and chalk are fragile and rare, the scale of numbers readily accessible to the common population are much smaller than today. The meaning of 40 to me comes across as: "longer than a month, and more days than one would care to count"; or as Wikepedia puts it in that link:




      similar to "umpteen".





      There is push-back in the comments about my use of the word euphemism above. I stand by that usage. The 1928 edition of the Oxford English Dictionary provides, as an exemplification of (proper) usage, the following from Fur Animals: by Eliott Coues, 1877: (p. 216, start of paragraph)




      The skunk yields a handsome fur, lately become fashionable, under the euphemism of Alaska Sable - for our elegant dames would surely not deck themselves in obscene Skunk skins if they were not permitted to call the rose by some other name.




      The softening of an exact, possibly estimated, number by the more general and de-nerded forty seems quite inline with Coues' usage.




      In a discussion below it became clear to me that I have relied above on a physicist's deep distinction between Accuracy and precision - without making that explicit.



      In the context of this discussion, one might regard precision as the choice between hours, days, weeks and months as the unit of measure. Accuracy would be the determination of whether, in the unit of measure chosen, the value specified is the most correct possible, in that unit of measure.



      SO the use of the phrase "forty days" appears to be specified with an accuracy determined in days; but actually intends, by convention, an accuracy in months. It means:



      "many days, longer than a month, but shorter than many months".



      Retaining the connotation of "many" above is important to imbue the sense of "trial" described below by David:




      enough time passed for God to achieve a goal. Fullness of time.




      Conveniently the number of days in a month (29 or 30) and the number of years in a generation (25 to 30) are close enough so that the quantity 40 is situated comfortably above one and below two such, and is a multiple of 10. This makes it particularly suited to the usage described above, whether days/months or years/generations are the units of measure at issue.






      share|improve this answer















      I believe it to be an euphemism similar to how today one might say something like gazillions for a large number.



      In a society that is mostly innumerate as well as illiterate, where neither pencils nor paper exist and both slateboards and chalk are fragile and rare, the scale of numbers readily accessible to the common population are much smaller than today. The meaning of 40 to me comes across as: "longer than a month, and more days than one would care to count"; or as Wikepedia puts it in that link:




      similar to "umpteen".





      There is push-back in the comments about my use of the word euphemism above. I stand by that usage. The 1928 edition of the Oxford English Dictionary provides, as an exemplification of (proper) usage, the following from Fur Animals: by Eliott Coues, 1877: (p. 216, start of paragraph)




      The skunk yields a handsome fur, lately become fashionable, under the euphemism of Alaska Sable - for our elegant dames would surely not deck themselves in obscene Skunk skins if they were not permitted to call the rose by some other name.




      The softening of an exact, possibly estimated, number by the more general and de-nerded forty seems quite inline with Coues' usage.




      In a discussion below it became clear to me that I have relied above on a physicist's deep distinction between Accuracy and precision - without making that explicit.



      In the context of this discussion, one might regard precision as the choice between hours, days, weeks and months as the unit of measure. Accuracy would be the determination of whether, in the unit of measure chosen, the value specified is the most correct possible, in that unit of measure.



      SO the use of the phrase "forty days" appears to be specified with an accuracy determined in days; but actually intends, by convention, an accuracy in months. It means:



      "many days, longer than a month, but shorter than many months".



      Retaining the connotation of "many" above is important to imbue the sense of "trial" described below by David:




      enough time passed for God to achieve a goal. Fullness of time.




      Conveniently the number of days in a month (29 or 30) and the number of years in a generation (25 to 30) are close enough so that the quantity 40 is situated comfortably above one and below two such, and is a multiple of 10. This makes it particularly suited to the usage described above, whether days/months or years/generations are the units of measure at issue.







      share|improve this answer














      share|improve this answer



      share|improve this answer








      edited 7 hours ago

























      answered 2 days ago









      Pieter GeerkensPieter Geerkens

      40.8k6117192




      40.8k6117192












      • Comments are not for extended discussion; this conversation has been moved to chat.

        – sempaiscuba
        15 hours ago

















      • Comments are not for extended discussion; this conversation has been moved to chat.

        – sempaiscuba
        15 hours ago
















      Comments are not for extended discussion; this conversation has been moved to chat.

      – sempaiscuba
      15 hours ago





      Comments are not for extended discussion; this conversation has been moved to chat.

      – sempaiscuba
      15 hours ago











      43














      There seems to be a bit of pushback on Pieter's (correct) answer, so perhaps a bit more detail is in order.



      It is not at all uncommon in languages to have words that, while technically a specific number, are usually used just to indicate an unspecified large amount. One of the technical terms for this is non-numerical vague quantifiers.



      The most well-known of these is of course the Hebrew Bible's "40", but they also had a word for an even larger indeterminate number: רבבה. This word came into English (via Greek) as "myriad", but the technical literal value for it is 10,000.



      Probably the next most famous for us English speakers is 1,001, which came into English from the Arabic work 1,001 Nights (which usually doesn't contain exactly 1,001 stories, unless you get an edition that purposely tried to edit to that amount for some weird reason). You can find all kinds of English-language books with titles on the theme "1,001 Uses For...", and nobody really expects those to contain exactly 1,001 of the thing in question.



      Now most secular (and mainline Christian) Biblical scholars will tell you that the earliest written source for the Hebrew scriptures (including the story of Noah that prominently featured the indeterminate 40) committed the stories to writing around the 6th Century BC.



      This was about 4 centuries before the Hebrews started using their distinctive Greek-borrowed numeric system (which resembles Roman Numerals a bit in implementation). At that time the numeric system in use would have been the old Babylonian Sexagesimal system. This survives today mostly in our units of time and angle "degree" (and thus Earth surface coordinate) measurements. This was technically a hybrid base 60 system, but represented with a weird base 10 tally system within the 60.



      enter image description here



      If that sounds complicated to you, you're probably still better off than the common Semite, who as Pieter pointed out, probably didn't really know how to read or use this system themselves beyond the bare basics required for everyday life. Doing reckoning under this system was much harder than what we have today, and there was no equivalent to the modern western education system, where every child gets basic mathematics instruction. Working with numbers that high was difficult, and very few in the audience of these stories would have been trained to do so.



      You may notice that the superglyph for 40 specifically is the first one where there isn't enough space for all the 10's tallies on one line, so you have to start compressing them together into 2 lines in the same amount of space. Perhaps its a coincidence, but this is certainly the point where the writing/carving for numbers starts to look like a bit of a mess. Its a lot.






      share|improve this answer

























      • That's really interesting. Any thoughts on how this relates to New Testament (Greek) use of 40?

        – vbnet3d
        2 days ago






      • 3





        @vbnet3d - Given that the other known users of this "indeterminate 40" (early Christians, Muslims, and Yazidis) all came later and were influenced heavily by the Hebrew scriptures, the logical conclusion is that they borrowed it. Its also possible this was just a widespread aspect of the regional culture that they all inherited.

        – T.E.D.
        2 days ago







      • 2





        Have you back-checked how often other numbers appear in the text? 3, 4, 7, 12, 13, 50, 70? OT and NT concordances are different for "40". But especially in OT this interpretation is not incorrect, imo in more than two ways, but this A looks only at just one aspect. My 2 cents.

        – LangLangC
        2 days ago















      43














      There seems to be a bit of pushback on Pieter's (correct) answer, so perhaps a bit more detail is in order.



      It is not at all uncommon in languages to have words that, while technically a specific number, are usually used just to indicate an unspecified large amount. One of the technical terms for this is non-numerical vague quantifiers.



      The most well-known of these is of course the Hebrew Bible's "40", but they also had a word for an even larger indeterminate number: רבבה. This word came into English (via Greek) as "myriad", but the technical literal value for it is 10,000.



      Probably the next most famous for us English speakers is 1,001, which came into English from the Arabic work 1,001 Nights (which usually doesn't contain exactly 1,001 stories, unless you get an edition that purposely tried to edit to that amount for some weird reason). You can find all kinds of English-language books with titles on the theme "1,001 Uses For...", and nobody really expects those to contain exactly 1,001 of the thing in question.



      Now most secular (and mainline Christian) Biblical scholars will tell you that the earliest written source for the Hebrew scriptures (including the story of Noah that prominently featured the indeterminate 40) committed the stories to writing around the 6th Century BC.



      This was about 4 centuries before the Hebrews started using their distinctive Greek-borrowed numeric system (which resembles Roman Numerals a bit in implementation). At that time the numeric system in use would have been the old Babylonian Sexagesimal system. This survives today mostly in our units of time and angle "degree" (and thus Earth surface coordinate) measurements. This was technically a hybrid base 60 system, but represented with a weird base 10 tally system within the 60.



      enter image description here



      If that sounds complicated to you, you're probably still better off than the common Semite, who as Pieter pointed out, probably didn't really know how to read or use this system themselves beyond the bare basics required for everyday life. Doing reckoning under this system was much harder than what we have today, and there was no equivalent to the modern western education system, where every child gets basic mathematics instruction. Working with numbers that high was difficult, and very few in the audience of these stories would have been trained to do so.



      You may notice that the superglyph for 40 specifically is the first one where there isn't enough space for all the 10's tallies on one line, so you have to start compressing them together into 2 lines in the same amount of space. Perhaps its a coincidence, but this is certainly the point where the writing/carving for numbers starts to look like a bit of a mess. Its a lot.






      share|improve this answer

























      • That's really interesting. Any thoughts on how this relates to New Testament (Greek) use of 40?

        – vbnet3d
        2 days ago






      • 3





        @vbnet3d - Given that the other known users of this "indeterminate 40" (early Christians, Muslims, and Yazidis) all came later and were influenced heavily by the Hebrew scriptures, the logical conclusion is that they borrowed it. Its also possible this was just a widespread aspect of the regional culture that they all inherited.

        – T.E.D.
        2 days ago







      • 2





        Have you back-checked how often other numbers appear in the text? 3, 4, 7, 12, 13, 50, 70? OT and NT concordances are different for "40". But especially in OT this interpretation is not incorrect, imo in more than two ways, but this A looks only at just one aspect. My 2 cents.

        – LangLangC
        2 days ago













      43












      43








      43







      There seems to be a bit of pushback on Pieter's (correct) answer, so perhaps a bit more detail is in order.



      It is not at all uncommon in languages to have words that, while technically a specific number, are usually used just to indicate an unspecified large amount. One of the technical terms for this is non-numerical vague quantifiers.



      The most well-known of these is of course the Hebrew Bible's "40", but they also had a word for an even larger indeterminate number: רבבה. This word came into English (via Greek) as "myriad", but the technical literal value for it is 10,000.



      Probably the next most famous for us English speakers is 1,001, which came into English from the Arabic work 1,001 Nights (which usually doesn't contain exactly 1,001 stories, unless you get an edition that purposely tried to edit to that amount for some weird reason). You can find all kinds of English-language books with titles on the theme "1,001 Uses For...", and nobody really expects those to contain exactly 1,001 of the thing in question.



      Now most secular (and mainline Christian) Biblical scholars will tell you that the earliest written source for the Hebrew scriptures (including the story of Noah that prominently featured the indeterminate 40) committed the stories to writing around the 6th Century BC.



      This was about 4 centuries before the Hebrews started using their distinctive Greek-borrowed numeric system (which resembles Roman Numerals a bit in implementation). At that time the numeric system in use would have been the old Babylonian Sexagesimal system. This survives today mostly in our units of time and angle "degree" (and thus Earth surface coordinate) measurements. This was technically a hybrid base 60 system, but represented with a weird base 10 tally system within the 60.



      enter image description here



      If that sounds complicated to you, you're probably still better off than the common Semite, who as Pieter pointed out, probably didn't really know how to read or use this system themselves beyond the bare basics required for everyday life. Doing reckoning under this system was much harder than what we have today, and there was no equivalent to the modern western education system, where every child gets basic mathematics instruction. Working with numbers that high was difficult, and very few in the audience of these stories would have been trained to do so.



      You may notice that the superglyph for 40 specifically is the first one where there isn't enough space for all the 10's tallies on one line, so you have to start compressing them together into 2 lines in the same amount of space. Perhaps its a coincidence, but this is certainly the point where the writing/carving for numbers starts to look like a bit of a mess. Its a lot.






      share|improve this answer















      There seems to be a bit of pushback on Pieter's (correct) answer, so perhaps a bit more detail is in order.



      It is not at all uncommon in languages to have words that, while technically a specific number, are usually used just to indicate an unspecified large amount. One of the technical terms for this is non-numerical vague quantifiers.



      The most well-known of these is of course the Hebrew Bible's "40", but they also had a word for an even larger indeterminate number: רבבה. This word came into English (via Greek) as "myriad", but the technical literal value for it is 10,000.



      Probably the next most famous for us English speakers is 1,001, which came into English from the Arabic work 1,001 Nights (which usually doesn't contain exactly 1,001 stories, unless you get an edition that purposely tried to edit to that amount for some weird reason). You can find all kinds of English-language books with titles on the theme "1,001 Uses For...", and nobody really expects those to contain exactly 1,001 of the thing in question.



      Now most secular (and mainline Christian) Biblical scholars will tell you that the earliest written source for the Hebrew scriptures (including the story of Noah that prominently featured the indeterminate 40) committed the stories to writing around the 6th Century BC.



      This was about 4 centuries before the Hebrews started using their distinctive Greek-borrowed numeric system (which resembles Roman Numerals a bit in implementation). At that time the numeric system in use would have been the old Babylonian Sexagesimal system. This survives today mostly in our units of time and angle "degree" (and thus Earth surface coordinate) measurements. This was technically a hybrid base 60 system, but represented with a weird base 10 tally system within the 60.



      enter image description here



      If that sounds complicated to you, you're probably still better off than the common Semite, who as Pieter pointed out, probably didn't really know how to read or use this system themselves beyond the bare basics required for everyday life. Doing reckoning under this system was much harder than what we have today, and there was no equivalent to the modern western education system, where every child gets basic mathematics instruction. Working with numbers that high was difficult, and very few in the audience of these stories would have been trained to do so.



      You may notice that the superglyph for 40 specifically is the first one where there isn't enough space for all the 10's tallies on one line, so you have to start compressing them together into 2 lines in the same amount of space. Perhaps its a coincidence, but this is certainly the point where the writing/carving for numbers starts to look like a bit of a mess. Its a lot.







      share|improve this answer














      share|improve this answer



      share|improve this answer








      edited 2 days ago

























      answered 2 days ago









      T.E.D.T.E.D.

      76.1k10171313




      76.1k10171313












      • That's really interesting. Any thoughts on how this relates to New Testament (Greek) use of 40?

        – vbnet3d
        2 days ago






      • 3





        @vbnet3d - Given that the other known users of this "indeterminate 40" (early Christians, Muslims, and Yazidis) all came later and were influenced heavily by the Hebrew scriptures, the logical conclusion is that they borrowed it. Its also possible this was just a widespread aspect of the regional culture that they all inherited.

        – T.E.D.
        2 days ago







      • 2





        Have you back-checked how often other numbers appear in the text? 3, 4, 7, 12, 13, 50, 70? OT and NT concordances are different for "40". But especially in OT this interpretation is not incorrect, imo in more than two ways, but this A looks only at just one aspect. My 2 cents.

        – LangLangC
        2 days ago

















      • That's really interesting. Any thoughts on how this relates to New Testament (Greek) use of 40?

        – vbnet3d
        2 days ago






      • 3





        @vbnet3d - Given that the other known users of this "indeterminate 40" (early Christians, Muslims, and Yazidis) all came later and were influenced heavily by the Hebrew scriptures, the logical conclusion is that they borrowed it. Its also possible this was just a widespread aspect of the regional culture that they all inherited.

        – T.E.D.
        2 days ago







      • 2





        Have you back-checked how often other numbers appear in the text? 3, 4, 7, 12, 13, 50, 70? OT and NT concordances are different for "40". But especially in OT this interpretation is not incorrect, imo in more than two ways, but this A looks only at just one aspect. My 2 cents.

        – LangLangC
        2 days ago
















      That's really interesting. Any thoughts on how this relates to New Testament (Greek) use of 40?

      – vbnet3d
      2 days ago





      That's really interesting. Any thoughts on how this relates to New Testament (Greek) use of 40?

      – vbnet3d
      2 days ago




      3




      3





      @vbnet3d - Given that the other known users of this "indeterminate 40" (early Christians, Muslims, and Yazidis) all came later and were influenced heavily by the Hebrew scriptures, the logical conclusion is that they borrowed it. Its also possible this was just a widespread aspect of the regional culture that they all inherited.

      – T.E.D.
      2 days ago






      @vbnet3d - Given that the other known users of this "indeterminate 40" (early Christians, Muslims, and Yazidis) all came later and were influenced heavily by the Hebrew scriptures, the logical conclusion is that they borrowed it. Its also possible this was just a widespread aspect of the regional culture that they all inherited.

      – T.E.D.
      2 days ago





      2




      2





      Have you back-checked how often other numbers appear in the text? 3, 4, 7, 12, 13, 50, 70? OT and NT concordances are different for "40". But especially in OT this interpretation is not incorrect, imo in more than two ways, but this A looks only at just one aspect. My 2 cents.

      – LangLangC
      2 days ago





      Have you back-checked how often other numbers appear in the text? 3, 4, 7, 12, 13, 50, 70? OT and NT concordances are different for "40". But especially in OT this interpretation is not incorrect, imo in more than two ways, but this A looks only at just one aspect. My 2 cents.

      – LangLangC
      2 days ago











      7














      Biblically, Forty is a number associated with testing and trials
      https://www.thoughtco.com/biblical-numerology-700168



      Jesus wandered in the wilderness 40 days, Israel wandered in the desert for 40 years etc.



      It's a number that indicates enough time passed for God to achieve a goal. Fullness of time.






      share|improve this answer








      New contributor




      David is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.
























        7














        Biblically, Forty is a number associated with testing and trials
        https://www.thoughtco.com/biblical-numerology-700168



        Jesus wandered in the wilderness 40 days, Israel wandered in the desert for 40 years etc.



        It's a number that indicates enough time passed for God to achieve a goal. Fullness of time.






        share|improve this answer








        New contributor




        David is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
        Check out our Code of Conduct.






















          7












          7








          7







          Biblically, Forty is a number associated with testing and trials
          https://www.thoughtco.com/biblical-numerology-700168



          Jesus wandered in the wilderness 40 days, Israel wandered in the desert for 40 years etc.



          It's a number that indicates enough time passed for God to achieve a goal. Fullness of time.






          share|improve this answer








          New contributor




          David is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
          Check out our Code of Conduct.










          Biblically, Forty is a number associated with testing and trials
          https://www.thoughtco.com/biblical-numerology-700168



          Jesus wandered in the wilderness 40 days, Israel wandered in the desert for 40 years etc.



          It's a number that indicates enough time passed for God to achieve a goal. Fullness of time.







          share|improve this answer








          New contributor




          David is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
          Check out our Code of Conduct.









          share|improve this answer



          share|improve this answer






          New contributor




          David is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
          Check out our Code of Conduct.









          answered 2 days ago









          DavidDavid

          951




          951




          New contributor




          David is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
          Check out our Code of Conduct.





          New contributor





          David is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
          Check out our Code of Conduct.






          David is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
          Check out our Code of Conduct.





















              3














              In this answer I'll take a literary approach, aiming less at the surrounding historical context and more at an internal analysis of what "significance" the document's authors intended to convey.1



              We can make one observation in line with the previous answers, namely that it is almost certainly not a literal but a symbolic number. There are at least three numbers that come up too often and at too useful a time to be coincidence: 7 / 70 (completeness; the root is related to "satiate"), 12 / 144 (traditional number of tribes of Israel, frequently recurrent), and of course 40. In that sense, it is indeed an "indeterminate" number in that one is not interested in the exact value.



              But we can also make the observation that though it may stand for an indeterminate number, it's not exactly an "indeterminately large number" in the sense of "more than one would care to count". The Bible is well aware that 40 is too small a unit for such purposes, and for big, vague numbers it prefers rounded-off hundreds, thousands, tens of thousands, or even hundreds of thousands (Deut 32:30, Josh 23:10, 1 Chron. 12:14, Judges 15:16, Psalm 91:7, 1 Sam. 13:2, 2 Sam. 18:3, Lev. 26:8, 1 Sam. 15:4, Num. 11:21, NT Rev. 7:4, etc.). Hence, reading "gazillions" or even "umpteen" for the biblical 40 seems to miss the mark.2



              So does 40 simply mean "an indeterminate small number"? Maybe. After all, it's probably around as small as you can get and still be indeterminate! But I think the Bible has a narrower use for it. There is indeterminacy, but that's not the force of the biblical use.



              One important note is that it's almost always a period of time. (One rare exception is the number of se'ahs in a mikvah; note that this correspondence is only established by extrabiblical tradition.)



              When speaking of years, some instances: The Israelites wandered in the desert 40 years, with the explicit effect being that a whole generation died off (Num. 32:13). Moses fled Egypt at 40 years old (Acts 7:23) and returned 40 years after that (Acts 7:30). Some patriarchs married at 40, including Isaac (Gen. 25:20) and Esau (Gen 26:34). More than one king is said to have ruled for 40 years (e.g. 1 Sam. 4:18). In Jewish tradition, a person is allowed to study the Kabbalah at 40.3



              When speaking of days, some instances: Noah's rain fell for 40 days and nights (Gen. 7:4); the spies explored Canaan for 40 days (Num. 13:25); Goliath taunted the Israelites for 40 days (1 Sam 17:16); Moses thrice spent 40 days and nights on Mount Sinai (Deut. 9:11, 9:25, 10:10); Elijah took a journey of 40 days to Mount Horeb (1 Kings 19:8). Embalming a corpse required forty days (Gen 50:3) — cp. your note on natron. In the NT, borrowing from this tradition, Jesus spends 40 days in the wilderness (Matt 4:2) and sticks around for 40 days after resurrection (Acts 1:3).



              I would thus offer an interpretation for "40 years" as a single generation in the sense of having lived a full life (in ancient terms!): you are not just the nominal "adult" of your 12/13 years at bat mitzvah or bar mitzvah, but have lived the whole span that most adults enjoy and acquired a certain measure of wisdom and experience by doing so. This fits with the marriages mentioned above; 40 would be a rather old marriage in ancient times, but if it means "having accrued the fullness of age", it makes sense. (As a corrolary, your time is over and it's now your children's time.) It's a unit, a mini-epoch, a building block in a history or geneaology of a nation — which is the sort of thing the Bible is deeply concerned with, even symbolically.



              Meanwhile, for "40 days" we can extend and miniaturize that meaning: it's a significant block of time within an average lifespan. We might say that 40 days is to a person's lifetime what 40 years is to a nation's history: a unit of time big enough to mark a change or a significant event.4



              Wikipedia tells me this reading is corroborated by Michael Coogan.5 Other commentators, such as Ellicott in the 19th century, identified the number as one indicating "trial and patience", which fits well with the idea of a significant event (but doesn't agree with my focusing on a generation). Meanwhile, the Pulpit Commentary (also 19th century) cites Trench that it's sometimes a "signature of penalty, affliction" and confession of sin, and other times a sign that "work is completely [and thoroughly] done". To me this reinforces the idea of a whole "unit" of time, whether that unit is characterized by trial or by simple "fullness".




              1 Without any reference to "hidden" significance, i.e. numerological or mystical interpretations.



              2 T.E.D.'s explanation comes closer, but seems to miss the point when citing the word רְבָבָה revavah. This word stems from the root רבב r-b-b meaning "to multiply, to become many", and is a good candidate for "indeterminately large number". Wiktionary and other dictionaries' gloss "10,000" does not refer to the "technical, literal value" of revavah but to precisely the figurative value "10,000" carried in early translations such as the KJV.



              3 Although, as the linked article notes, this appears to be only ambiguously supported by the Talmud.



              4 In sacred matters, the Bible does sometimes use the metaphor of a person for a nation, particularly the Israelite nation.



              5 Michael David Coogan, A Brief Introduction to the Old Testament: The Hebrew Bible in Its Context, Oxford, 2008, p. 116.






              share|improve this answer

























              • This would be improved by some references: at present, you only cite a number not mentioned in the question.

                – TimLymington
                9 hours ago











              • @TimLymington Fair enough. I've added 40 references.

                – Luke Sawczak
                9 hours ago






              • 1





                It would be good for the downvoter to give an explanation: Does s/he find the arguments unconvincing? Are the references lacking? The tone grating? Is the premise doubtful that a study of a biblical term is at least a partly literary question to be answered internally in documents?

                – Luke Sawczak
                9 hours ago












              • You might benefit from researching the scientific distinction between precision and accuracy. It is quite possible for the description "forty days" to be accurate even when it is not precise to the day. It would describe a period of time longer than 1 month, but also clearly less than two months - in a context where it is not necessary to know the exact number of days.

                – Pieter Geerkens
                8 hours ago











              • @PieterGeerkens I consider that there are cases where it's intended to be neither precise nor accurate. I'd've thought we were on the same page about it sometimes not throwing in the range of 1–2 months, or the analogous number of years!

                – Luke Sawczak
                7 hours ago















              3














              In this answer I'll take a literary approach, aiming less at the surrounding historical context and more at an internal analysis of what "significance" the document's authors intended to convey.1



              We can make one observation in line with the previous answers, namely that it is almost certainly not a literal but a symbolic number. There are at least three numbers that come up too often and at too useful a time to be coincidence: 7 / 70 (completeness; the root is related to "satiate"), 12 / 144 (traditional number of tribes of Israel, frequently recurrent), and of course 40. In that sense, it is indeed an "indeterminate" number in that one is not interested in the exact value.



              But we can also make the observation that though it may stand for an indeterminate number, it's not exactly an "indeterminately large number" in the sense of "more than one would care to count". The Bible is well aware that 40 is too small a unit for such purposes, and for big, vague numbers it prefers rounded-off hundreds, thousands, tens of thousands, or even hundreds of thousands (Deut 32:30, Josh 23:10, 1 Chron. 12:14, Judges 15:16, Psalm 91:7, 1 Sam. 13:2, 2 Sam. 18:3, Lev. 26:8, 1 Sam. 15:4, Num. 11:21, NT Rev. 7:4, etc.). Hence, reading "gazillions" or even "umpteen" for the biblical 40 seems to miss the mark.2



              So does 40 simply mean "an indeterminate small number"? Maybe. After all, it's probably around as small as you can get and still be indeterminate! But I think the Bible has a narrower use for it. There is indeterminacy, but that's not the force of the biblical use.



              One important note is that it's almost always a period of time. (One rare exception is the number of se'ahs in a mikvah; note that this correspondence is only established by extrabiblical tradition.)



              When speaking of years, some instances: The Israelites wandered in the desert 40 years, with the explicit effect being that a whole generation died off (Num. 32:13). Moses fled Egypt at 40 years old (Acts 7:23) and returned 40 years after that (Acts 7:30). Some patriarchs married at 40, including Isaac (Gen. 25:20) and Esau (Gen 26:34). More than one king is said to have ruled for 40 years (e.g. 1 Sam. 4:18). In Jewish tradition, a person is allowed to study the Kabbalah at 40.3



              When speaking of days, some instances: Noah's rain fell for 40 days and nights (Gen. 7:4); the spies explored Canaan for 40 days (Num. 13:25); Goliath taunted the Israelites for 40 days (1 Sam 17:16); Moses thrice spent 40 days and nights on Mount Sinai (Deut. 9:11, 9:25, 10:10); Elijah took a journey of 40 days to Mount Horeb (1 Kings 19:8). Embalming a corpse required forty days (Gen 50:3) — cp. your note on natron. In the NT, borrowing from this tradition, Jesus spends 40 days in the wilderness (Matt 4:2) and sticks around for 40 days after resurrection (Acts 1:3).



              I would thus offer an interpretation for "40 years" as a single generation in the sense of having lived a full life (in ancient terms!): you are not just the nominal "adult" of your 12/13 years at bat mitzvah or bar mitzvah, but have lived the whole span that most adults enjoy and acquired a certain measure of wisdom and experience by doing so. This fits with the marriages mentioned above; 40 would be a rather old marriage in ancient times, but if it means "having accrued the fullness of age", it makes sense. (As a corrolary, your time is over and it's now your children's time.) It's a unit, a mini-epoch, a building block in a history or geneaology of a nation — which is the sort of thing the Bible is deeply concerned with, even symbolically.



              Meanwhile, for "40 days" we can extend and miniaturize that meaning: it's a significant block of time within an average lifespan. We might say that 40 days is to a person's lifetime what 40 years is to a nation's history: a unit of time big enough to mark a change or a significant event.4



              Wikipedia tells me this reading is corroborated by Michael Coogan.5 Other commentators, such as Ellicott in the 19th century, identified the number as one indicating "trial and patience", which fits well with the idea of a significant event (but doesn't agree with my focusing on a generation). Meanwhile, the Pulpit Commentary (also 19th century) cites Trench that it's sometimes a "signature of penalty, affliction" and confession of sin, and other times a sign that "work is completely [and thoroughly] done". To me this reinforces the idea of a whole "unit" of time, whether that unit is characterized by trial or by simple "fullness".




              1 Without any reference to "hidden" significance, i.e. numerological or mystical interpretations.



              2 T.E.D.'s explanation comes closer, but seems to miss the point when citing the word רְבָבָה revavah. This word stems from the root רבב r-b-b meaning "to multiply, to become many", and is a good candidate for "indeterminately large number". Wiktionary and other dictionaries' gloss "10,000" does not refer to the "technical, literal value" of revavah but to precisely the figurative value "10,000" carried in early translations such as the KJV.



              3 Although, as the linked article notes, this appears to be only ambiguously supported by the Talmud.



              4 In sacred matters, the Bible does sometimes use the metaphor of a person for a nation, particularly the Israelite nation.



              5 Michael David Coogan, A Brief Introduction to the Old Testament: The Hebrew Bible in Its Context, Oxford, 2008, p. 116.






              share|improve this answer

























              • This would be improved by some references: at present, you only cite a number not mentioned in the question.

                – TimLymington
                9 hours ago











              • @TimLymington Fair enough. I've added 40 references.

                – Luke Sawczak
                9 hours ago






              • 1





                It would be good for the downvoter to give an explanation: Does s/he find the arguments unconvincing? Are the references lacking? The tone grating? Is the premise doubtful that a study of a biblical term is at least a partly literary question to be answered internally in documents?

                – Luke Sawczak
                9 hours ago












              • You might benefit from researching the scientific distinction between precision and accuracy. It is quite possible for the description "forty days" to be accurate even when it is not precise to the day. It would describe a period of time longer than 1 month, but also clearly less than two months - in a context where it is not necessary to know the exact number of days.

                – Pieter Geerkens
                8 hours ago











              • @PieterGeerkens I consider that there are cases where it's intended to be neither precise nor accurate. I'd've thought we were on the same page about it sometimes not throwing in the range of 1–2 months, or the analogous number of years!

                – Luke Sawczak
                7 hours ago













              3












              3








              3







              In this answer I'll take a literary approach, aiming less at the surrounding historical context and more at an internal analysis of what "significance" the document's authors intended to convey.1



              We can make one observation in line with the previous answers, namely that it is almost certainly not a literal but a symbolic number. There are at least three numbers that come up too often and at too useful a time to be coincidence: 7 / 70 (completeness; the root is related to "satiate"), 12 / 144 (traditional number of tribes of Israel, frequently recurrent), and of course 40. In that sense, it is indeed an "indeterminate" number in that one is not interested in the exact value.



              But we can also make the observation that though it may stand for an indeterminate number, it's not exactly an "indeterminately large number" in the sense of "more than one would care to count". The Bible is well aware that 40 is too small a unit for such purposes, and for big, vague numbers it prefers rounded-off hundreds, thousands, tens of thousands, or even hundreds of thousands (Deut 32:30, Josh 23:10, 1 Chron. 12:14, Judges 15:16, Psalm 91:7, 1 Sam. 13:2, 2 Sam. 18:3, Lev. 26:8, 1 Sam. 15:4, Num. 11:21, NT Rev. 7:4, etc.). Hence, reading "gazillions" or even "umpteen" for the biblical 40 seems to miss the mark.2



              So does 40 simply mean "an indeterminate small number"? Maybe. After all, it's probably around as small as you can get and still be indeterminate! But I think the Bible has a narrower use for it. There is indeterminacy, but that's not the force of the biblical use.



              One important note is that it's almost always a period of time. (One rare exception is the number of se'ahs in a mikvah; note that this correspondence is only established by extrabiblical tradition.)



              When speaking of years, some instances: The Israelites wandered in the desert 40 years, with the explicit effect being that a whole generation died off (Num. 32:13). Moses fled Egypt at 40 years old (Acts 7:23) and returned 40 years after that (Acts 7:30). Some patriarchs married at 40, including Isaac (Gen. 25:20) and Esau (Gen 26:34). More than one king is said to have ruled for 40 years (e.g. 1 Sam. 4:18). In Jewish tradition, a person is allowed to study the Kabbalah at 40.3



              When speaking of days, some instances: Noah's rain fell for 40 days and nights (Gen. 7:4); the spies explored Canaan for 40 days (Num. 13:25); Goliath taunted the Israelites for 40 days (1 Sam 17:16); Moses thrice spent 40 days and nights on Mount Sinai (Deut. 9:11, 9:25, 10:10); Elijah took a journey of 40 days to Mount Horeb (1 Kings 19:8). Embalming a corpse required forty days (Gen 50:3) — cp. your note on natron. In the NT, borrowing from this tradition, Jesus spends 40 days in the wilderness (Matt 4:2) and sticks around for 40 days after resurrection (Acts 1:3).



              I would thus offer an interpretation for "40 years" as a single generation in the sense of having lived a full life (in ancient terms!): you are not just the nominal "adult" of your 12/13 years at bat mitzvah or bar mitzvah, but have lived the whole span that most adults enjoy and acquired a certain measure of wisdom and experience by doing so. This fits with the marriages mentioned above; 40 would be a rather old marriage in ancient times, but if it means "having accrued the fullness of age", it makes sense. (As a corrolary, your time is over and it's now your children's time.) It's a unit, a mini-epoch, a building block in a history or geneaology of a nation — which is the sort of thing the Bible is deeply concerned with, even symbolically.



              Meanwhile, for "40 days" we can extend and miniaturize that meaning: it's a significant block of time within an average lifespan. We might say that 40 days is to a person's lifetime what 40 years is to a nation's history: a unit of time big enough to mark a change or a significant event.4



              Wikipedia tells me this reading is corroborated by Michael Coogan.5 Other commentators, such as Ellicott in the 19th century, identified the number as one indicating "trial and patience", which fits well with the idea of a significant event (but doesn't agree with my focusing on a generation). Meanwhile, the Pulpit Commentary (also 19th century) cites Trench that it's sometimes a "signature of penalty, affliction" and confession of sin, and other times a sign that "work is completely [and thoroughly] done". To me this reinforces the idea of a whole "unit" of time, whether that unit is characterized by trial or by simple "fullness".




              1 Without any reference to "hidden" significance, i.e. numerological or mystical interpretations.



              2 T.E.D.'s explanation comes closer, but seems to miss the point when citing the word רְבָבָה revavah. This word stems from the root רבב r-b-b meaning "to multiply, to become many", and is a good candidate for "indeterminately large number". Wiktionary and other dictionaries' gloss "10,000" does not refer to the "technical, literal value" of revavah but to precisely the figurative value "10,000" carried in early translations such as the KJV.



              3 Although, as the linked article notes, this appears to be only ambiguously supported by the Talmud.



              4 In sacred matters, the Bible does sometimes use the metaphor of a person for a nation, particularly the Israelite nation.



              5 Michael David Coogan, A Brief Introduction to the Old Testament: The Hebrew Bible in Its Context, Oxford, 2008, p. 116.






              share|improve this answer















              In this answer I'll take a literary approach, aiming less at the surrounding historical context and more at an internal analysis of what "significance" the document's authors intended to convey.1



              We can make one observation in line with the previous answers, namely that it is almost certainly not a literal but a symbolic number. There are at least three numbers that come up too often and at too useful a time to be coincidence: 7 / 70 (completeness; the root is related to "satiate"), 12 / 144 (traditional number of tribes of Israel, frequently recurrent), and of course 40. In that sense, it is indeed an "indeterminate" number in that one is not interested in the exact value.



              But we can also make the observation that though it may stand for an indeterminate number, it's not exactly an "indeterminately large number" in the sense of "more than one would care to count". The Bible is well aware that 40 is too small a unit for such purposes, and for big, vague numbers it prefers rounded-off hundreds, thousands, tens of thousands, or even hundreds of thousands (Deut 32:30, Josh 23:10, 1 Chron. 12:14, Judges 15:16, Psalm 91:7, 1 Sam. 13:2, 2 Sam. 18:3, Lev. 26:8, 1 Sam. 15:4, Num. 11:21, NT Rev. 7:4, etc.). Hence, reading "gazillions" or even "umpteen" for the biblical 40 seems to miss the mark.2



              So does 40 simply mean "an indeterminate small number"? Maybe. After all, it's probably around as small as you can get and still be indeterminate! But I think the Bible has a narrower use for it. There is indeterminacy, but that's not the force of the biblical use.



              One important note is that it's almost always a period of time. (One rare exception is the number of se'ahs in a mikvah; note that this correspondence is only established by extrabiblical tradition.)



              When speaking of years, some instances: The Israelites wandered in the desert 40 years, with the explicit effect being that a whole generation died off (Num. 32:13). Moses fled Egypt at 40 years old (Acts 7:23) and returned 40 years after that (Acts 7:30). Some patriarchs married at 40, including Isaac (Gen. 25:20) and Esau (Gen 26:34). More than one king is said to have ruled for 40 years (e.g. 1 Sam. 4:18). In Jewish tradition, a person is allowed to study the Kabbalah at 40.3



              When speaking of days, some instances: Noah's rain fell for 40 days and nights (Gen. 7:4); the spies explored Canaan for 40 days (Num. 13:25); Goliath taunted the Israelites for 40 days (1 Sam 17:16); Moses thrice spent 40 days and nights on Mount Sinai (Deut. 9:11, 9:25, 10:10); Elijah took a journey of 40 days to Mount Horeb (1 Kings 19:8). Embalming a corpse required forty days (Gen 50:3) — cp. your note on natron. In the NT, borrowing from this tradition, Jesus spends 40 days in the wilderness (Matt 4:2) and sticks around for 40 days after resurrection (Acts 1:3).



              I would thus offer an interpretation for "40 years" as a single generation in the sense of having lived a full life (in ancient terms!): you are not just the nominal "adult" of your 12/13 years at bat mitzvah or bar mitzvah, but have lived the whole span that most adults enjoy and acquired a certain measure of wisdom and experience by doing so. This fits with the marriages mentioned above; 40 would be a rather old marriage in ancient times, but if it means "having accrued the fullness of age", it makes sense. (As a corrolary, your time is over and it's now your children's time.) It's a unit, a mini-epoch, a building block in a history or geneaology of a nation — which is the sort of thing the Bible is deeply concerned with, even symbolically.



              Meanwhile, for "40 days" we can extend and miniaturize that meaning: it's a significant block of time within an average lifespan. We might say that 40 days is to a person's lifetime what 40 years is to a nation's history: a unit of time big enough to mark a change or a significant event.4



              Wikipedia tells me this reading is corroborated by Michael Coogan.5 Other commentators, such as Ellicott in the 19th century, identified the number as one indicating "trial and patience", which fits well with the idea of a significant event (but doesn't agree with my focusing on a generation). Meanwhile, the Pulpit Commentary (also 19th century) cites Trench that it's sometimes a "signature of penalty, affliction" and confession of sin, and other times a sign that "work is completely [and thoroughly] done". To me this reinforces the idea of a whole "unit" of time, whether that unit is characterized by trial or by simple "fullness".




              1 Without any reference to "hidden" significance, i.e. numerological or mystical interpretations.



              2 T.E.D.'s explanation comes closer, but seems to miss the point when citing the word רְבָבָה revavah. This word stems from the root רבב r-b-b meaning "to multiply, to become many", and is a good candidate for "indeterminately large number". Wiktionary and other dictionaries' gloss "10,000" does not refer to the "technical, literal value" of revavah but to precisely the figurative value "10,000" carried in early translations such as the KJV.



              3 Although, as the linked article notes, this appears to be only ambiguously supported by the Talmud.



              4 In sacred matters, the Bible does sometimes use the metaphor of a person for a nation, particularly the Israelite nation.



              5 Michael David Coogan, A Brief Introduction to the Old Testament: The Hebrew Bible in Its Context, Oxford, 2008, p. 116.







              share|improve this answer














              share|improve this answer



              share|improve this answer








              edited 8 hours ago

























              answered 12 hours ago









              Luke SawczakLuke Sawczak

              23119




              23119












              • This would be improved by some references: at present, you only cite a number not mentioned in the question.

                – TimLymington
                9 hours ago











              • @TimLymington Fair enough. I've added 40 references.

                – Luke Sawczak
                9 hours ago






              • 1





                It would be good for the downvoter to give an explanation: Does s/he find the arguments unconvincing? Are the references lacking? The tone grating? Is the premise doubtful that a study of a biblical term is at least a partly literary question to be answered internally in documents?

                – Luke Sawczak
                9 hours ago












              • You might benefit from researching the scientific distinction between precision and accuracy. It is quite possible for the description "forty days" to be accurate even when it is not precise to the day. It would describe a period of time longer than 1 month, but also clearly less than two months - in a context where it is not necessary to know the exact number of days.

                – Pieter Geerkens
                8 hours ago











              • @PieterGeerkens I consider that there are cases where it's intended to be neither precise nor accurate. I'd've thought we were on the same page about it sometimes not throwing in the range of 1–2 months, or the analogous number of years!

                – Luke Sawczak
                7 hours ago

















              • This would be improved by some references: at present, you only cite a number not mentioned in the question.

                – TimLymington
                9 hours ago











              • @TimLymington Fair enough. I've added 40 references.

                – Luke Sawczak
                9 hours ago






              • 1





                It would be good for the downvoter to give an explanation: Does s/he find the arguments unconvincing? Are the references lacking? The tone grating? Is the premise doubtful that a study of a biblical term is at least a partly literary question to be answered internally in documents?

                – Luke Sawczak
                9 hours ago












              • You might benefit from researching the scientific distinction between precision and accuracy. It is quite possible for the description "forty days" to be accurate even when it is not precise to the day. It would describe a period of time longer than 1 month, but also clearly less than two months - in a context where it is not necessary to know the exact number of days.

                – Pieter Geerkens
                8 hours ago











              • @PieterGeerkens I consider that there are cases where it's intended to be neither precise nor accurate. I'd've thought we were on the same page about it sometimes not throwing in the range of 1–2 months, or the analogous number of years!

                – Luke Sawczak
                7 hours ago
















              This would be improved by some references: at present, you only cite a number not mentioned in the question.

              – TimLymington
              9 hours ago





              This would be improved by some references: at present, you only cite a number not mentioned in the question.

              – TimLymington
              9 hours ago













              @TimLymington Fair enough. I've added 40 references.

              – Luke Sawczak
              9 hours ago





              @TimLymington Fair enough. I've added 40 references.

              – Luke Sawczak
              9 hours ago




              1




              1





              It would be good for the downvoter to give an explanation: Does s/he find the arguments unconvincing? Are the references lacking? The tone grating? Is the premise doubtful that a study of a biblical term is at least a partly literary question to be answered internally in documents?

              – Luke Sawczak
              9 hours ago






              It would be good for the downvoter to give an explanation: Does s/he find the arguments unconvincing? Are the references lacking? The tone grating? Is the premise doubtful that a study of a biblical term is at least a partly literary question to be answered internally in documents?

              – Luke Sawczak
              9 hours ago














              You might benefit from researching the scientific distinction between precision and accuracy. It is quite possible for the description "forty days" to be accurate even when it is not precise to the day. It would describe a period of time longer than 1 month, but also clearly less than two months - in a context where it is not necessary to know the exact number of days.

              – Pieter Geerkens
              8 hours ago





              You might benefit from researching the scientific distinction between precision and accuracy. It is quite possible for the description "forty days" to be accurate even when it is not precise to the day. It would describe a period of time longer than 1 month, but also clearly less than two months - in a context where it is not necessary to know the exact number of days.

              – Pieter Geerkens
              8 hours ago













              @PieterGeerkens I consider that there are cases where it's intended to be neither precise nor accurate. I'd've thought we were on the same page about it sometimes not throwing in the range of 1–2 months, or the analogous number of years!

              – Luke Sawczak
              7 hours ago





              @PieterGeerkens I consider that there are cases where it's intended to be neither precise nor accurate. I'd've thought we were on the same page about it sometimes not throwing in the range of 1–2 months, or the analogous number of years!

              – Luke Sawczak
              7 hours ago











              0














              Babylonians used a sexagesimal base 60 numbering system. 40/60= 66.6% the number of the beast. It represents sorrow.



              Unfortunately two out of three is bad, but more correctly not bad but evil. Using witch speak and wordplay the last part of the sentence is omitted to be deceptive.






              share|improve this answer








              New contributor




              Joseph Malone is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
              Check out our Code of Conduct.




















              • Nitpick: 40/60= 66.66666666666666666...% so not really the number of the beast. Anyway, I don't think this really does much to answer the question that was asked.

                – Steve Bird
                8 hours ago











              • @SteveBird Moreover, this mathematical analysis is anachronistic.

                – Luke Sawczak
                3 hours ago















              0














              Babylonians used a sexagesimal base 60 numbering system. 40/60= 66.6% the number of the beast. It represents sorrow.



              Unfortunately two out of three is bad, but more correctly not bad but evil. Using witch speak and wordplay the last part of the sentence is omitted to be deceptive.






              share|improve this answer








              New contributor




              Joseph Malone is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
              Check out our Code of Conduct.




















              • Nitpick: 40/60= 66.66666666666666666...% so not really the number of the beast. Anyway, I don't think this really does much to answer the question that was asked.

                – Steve Bird
                8 hours ago











              • @SteveBird Moreover, this mathematical analysis is anachronistic.

                – Luke Sawczak
                3 hours ago













              0












              0








              0







              Babylonians used a sexagesimal base 60 numbering system. 40/60= 66.6% the number of the beast. It represents sorrow.



              Unfortunately two out of three is bad, but more correctly not bad but evil. Using witch speak and wordplay the last part of the sentence is omitted to be deceptive.






              share|improve this answer








              New contributor




              Joseph Malone is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
              Check out our Code of Conduct.










              Babylonians used a sexagesimal base 60 numbering system. 40/60= 66.6% the number of the beast. It represents sorrow.



              Unfortunately two out of three is bad, but more correctly not bad but evil. Using witch speak and wordplay the last part of the sentence is omitted to be deceptive.







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              answered 8 hours ago









              Joseph MaloneJoseph Malone

              1




              1




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              • Nitpick: 40/60= 66.66666666666666666...% so not really the number of the beast. Anyway, I don't think this really does much to answer the question that was asked.

                – Steve Bird
                8 hours ago











              • @SteveBird Moreover, this mathematical analysis is anachronistic.

                – Luke Sawczak
                3 hours ago

















              • Nitpick: 40/60= 66.66666666666666666...% so not really the number of the beast. Anyway, I don't think this really does much to answer the question that was asked.

                – Steve Bird
                8 hours ago











              • @SteveBird Moreover, this mathematical analysis is anachronistic.

                – Luke Sawczak
                3 hours ago
















              Nitpick: 40/60= 66.66666666666666666...% so not really the number of the beast. Anyway, I don't think this really does much to answer the question that was asked.

              – Steve Bird
              8 hours ago





              Nitpick: 40/60= 66.66666666666666666...% so not really the number of the beast. Anyway, I don't think this really does much to answer the question that was asked.

              – Steve Bird
              8 hours ago













              @SteveBird Moreover, this mathematical analysis is anachronistic.

              – Luke Sawczak
              3 hours ago





              @SteveBird Moreover, this mathematical analysis is anachronistic.

              – Luke Sawczak
              3 hours ago











              0















              Question:

              What is the significance behind “40 days” that often appears in the Bible?




              The significance isn't in the actual number. That's modern bias. The significance is in the collection of 146 uses of the number 40 in the Bible.



              Numbers in the Bible aren't meant to convey literal meaning but used to demonstrate the greater message behind the story. We live in a world where understanding and greater meaning comes from quantify-able observation. The Bible was written before this time when real world events were believed to obscured the greater meaning of events (Plato) or the real meaning of events had to be decreed through intuitive means prior to making observations (Aristotle).




              Plato's Cave Allegory
              Plato claimed that knowledge gained through the senses is no more than opinion and that, in order to have real knowledge, we must gain it through philosophical reasoning. In the Allegory of the Cave, Plato distinguishes between people who mistake sensory knowledge for the truth and people who really do see the truth.




              .




              Aristotelian physics - Aristotle's principles were not based on controlled, quantitative experiments, so they do not describe our universe in the precise, quantitative way now expected of science.




              We live in the world influenced by Galileo and his approach where observed numbers are what determine meaning. We live in a world biased by numbers and thus biblical times are counter intuitive to us as much as our world would be counter intuitive to biblical writers.




              History of scientific method

              During the period of religious conservatism brought about by the Reformation and Counter-Reformation, Galileo Galilei unveiled his new science of motion. Neither the contents of Galileo’s science, nor the methods of study he selected were in keeping with Aristotelian teachings. Whereas Aristotle thought that a science should be demonstrated from first principles, Galileo had used experiments as a research tool.




              The Bible was written in the ages when Plato and Aristotle's ideals dominated disciplined educated minds. The age when the real meaning of events was not decreeable through observation. Numbers as representations of events were not persuasive or interesting but deemed dangerous. So rather than attempt to relay actual numbers for events, numbers are used in the Bible to link like events and convey the greater meaning behind the story or event. As David said, 40 is generally used in the bible to symbolize a period of testing, trial, or probation. from Moses, Jonah, Ezekiel and Jesus 40, appears 146 times in scripture in stories and events with this reoccurring theme.



              • Moses crosses the Sinai Peninsula in 40 years after leading his people out of Egypt.


              • Mosses spends 40 years in Egypt before leading the exodus.


              • Mosses spends 40 days and nights on Mount Sinai to receive the 10 commandments.


              • Ezekiel lays on his right side for 40 days to symbolize Judah's sin.


              • Jonah warns Nineveh for 40 days of it's destruction.


              • It rained for 40 days and nights flooding the world to float Noah's Arch.


              • After being baptized by John, Jesus fasted for 40 days and nights in the desert.


              etc...



              Sources:



              • Meaning of Numbers in the Bible

              • History of Scientific Method (Galileo_Galilei)

              • Plato's Cave Allegory

              • Allegory of the Cave from Plato, Summary and Meaning

              • Aristotelian Physics





              share|improve this answer





























                0















                Question:

                What is the significance behind “40 days” that often appears in the Bible?




                The significance isn't in the actual number. That's modern bias. The significance is in the collection of 146 uses of the number 40 in the Bible.



                Numbers in the Bible aren't meant to convey literal meaning but used to demonstrate the greater message behind the story. We live in a world where understanding and greater meaning comes from quantify-able observation. The Bible was written before this time when real world events were believed to obscured the greater meaning of events (Plato) or the real meaning of events had to be decreed through intuitive means prior to making observations (Aristotle).




                Plato's Cave Allegory
                Plato claimed that knowledge gained through the senses is no more than opinion and that, in order to have real knowledge, we must gain it through philosophical reasoning. In the Allegory of the Cave, Plato distinguishes between people who mistake sensory knowledge for the truth and people who really do see the truth.




                .




                Aristotelian physics - Aristotle's principles were not based on controlled, quantitative experiments, so they do not describe our universe in the precise, quantitative way now expected of science.




                We live in the world influenced by Galileo and his approach where observed numbers are what determine meaning. We live in a world biased by numbers and thus biblical times are counter intuitive to us as much as our world would be counter intuitive to biblical writers.




                History of scientific method

                During the period of religious conservatism brought about by the Reformation and Counter-Reformation, Galileo Galilei unveiled his new science of motion. Neither the contents of Galileo’s science, nor the methods of study he selected were in keeping with Aristotelian teachings. Whereas Aristotle thought that a science should be demonstrated from first principles, Galileo had used experiments as a research tool.




                The Bible was written in the ages when Plato and Aristotle's ideals dominated disciplined educated minds. The age when the real meaning of events was not decreeable through observation. Numbers as representations of events were not persuasive or interesting but deemed dangerous. So rather than attempt to relay actual numbers for events, numbers are used in the Bible to link like events and convey the greater meaning behind the story or event. As David said, 40 is generally used in the bible to symbolize a period of testing, trial, or probation. from Moses, Jonah, Ezekiel and Jesus 40, appears 146 times in scripture in stories and events with this reoccurring theme.



                • Moses crosses the Sinai Peninsula in 40 years after leading his people out of Egypt.


                • Mosses spends 40 years in Egypt before leading the exodus.


                • Mosses spends 40 days and nights on Mount Sinai to receive the 10 commandments.


                • Ezekiel lays on his right side for 40 days to symbolize Judah's sin.


                • Jonah warns Nineveh for 40 days of it's destruction.


                • It rained for 40 days and nights flooding the world to float Noah's Arch.


                • After being baptized by John, Jesus fasted for 40 days and nights in the desert.


                etc...



                Sources:



                • Meaning of Numbers in the Bible

                • History of Scientific Method (Galileo_Galilei)

                • Plato's Cave Allegory

                • Allegory of the Cave from Plato, Summary and Meaning

                • Aristotelian Physics





                share|improve this answer



























                  0












                  0








                  0








                  Question:

                  What is the significance behind “40 days” that often appears in the Bible?




                  The significance isn't in the actual number. That's modern bias. The significance is in the collection of 146 uses of the number 40 in the Bible.



                  Numbers in the Bible aren't meant to convey literal meaning but used to demonstrate the greater message behind the story. We live in a world where understanding and greater meaning comes from quantify-able observation. The Bible was written before this time when real world events were believed to obscured the greater meaning of events (Plato) or the real meaning of events had to be decreed through intuitive means prior to making observations (Aristotle).




                  Plato's Cave Allegory
                  Plato claimed that knowledge gained through the senses is no more than opinion and that, in order to have real knowledge, we must gain it through philosophical reasoning. In the Allegory of the Cave, Plato distinguishes between people who mistake sensory knowledge for the truth and people who really do see the truth.




                  .




                  Aristotelian physics - Aristotle's principles were not based on controlled, quantitative experiments, so they do not describe our universe in the precise, quantitative way now expected of science.




                  We live in the world influenced by Galileo and his approach where observed numbers are what determine meaning. We live in a world biased by numbers and thus biblical times are counter intuitive to us as much as our world would be counter intuitive to biblical writers.




                  History of scientific method

                  During the period of religious conservatism brought about by the Reformation and Counter-Reformation, Galileo Galilei unveiled his new science of motion. Neither the contents of Galileo’s science, nor the methods of study he selected were in keeping with Aristotelian teachings. Whereas Aristotle thought that a science should be demonstrated from first principles, Galileo had used experiments as a research tool.




                  The Bible was written in the ages when Plato and Aristotle's ideals dominated disciplined educated minds. The age when the real meaning of events was not decreeable through observation. Numbers as representations of events were not persuasive or interesting but deemed dangerous. So rather than attempt to relay actual numbers for events, numbers are used in the Bible to link like events and convey the greater meaning behind the story or event. As David said, 40 is generally used in the bible to symbolize a period of testing, trial, or probation. from Moses, Jonah, Ezekiel and Jesus 40, appears 146 times in scripture in stories and events with this reoccurring theme.



                  • Moses crosses the Sinai Peninsula in 40 years after leading his people out of Egypt.


                  • Mosses spends 40 years in Egypt before leading the exodus.


                  • Mosses spends 40 days and nights on Mount Sinai to receive the 10 commandments.


                  • Ezekiel lays on his right side for 40 days to symbolize Judah's sin.


                  • Jonah warns Nineveh for 40 days of it's destruction.


                  • It rained for 40 days and nights flooding the world to float Noah's Arch.


                  • After being baptized by John, Jesus fasted for 40 days and nights in the desert.


                  etc...



                  Sources:



                  • Meaning of Numbers in the Bible

                  • History of Scientific Method (Galileo_Galilei)

                  • Plato's Cave Allegory

                  • Allegory of the Cave from Plato, Summary and Meaning

                  • Aristotelian Physics





                  share|improve this answer
















                  Question:

                  What is the significance behind “40 days” that often appears in the Bible?




                  The significance isn't in the actual number. That's modern bias. The significance is in the collection of 146 uses of the number 40 in the Bible.



                  Numbers in the Bible aren't meant to convey literal meaning but used to demonstrate the greater message behind the story. We live in a world where understanding and greater meaning comes from quantify-able observation. The Bible was written before this time when real world events were believed to obscured the greater meaning of events (Plato) or the real meaning of events had to be decreed through intuitive means prior to making observations (Aristotle).




                  Plato's Cave Allegory
                  Plato claimed that knowledge gained through the senses is no more than opinion and that, in order to have real knowledge, we must gain it through philosophical reasoning. In the Allegory of the Cave, Plato distinguishes between people who mistake sensory knowledge for the truth and people who really do see the truth.




                  .




                  Aristotelian physics - Aristotle's principles were not based on controlled, quantitative experiments, so they do not describe our universe in the precise, quantitative way now expected of science.




                  We live in the world influenced by Galileo and his approach where observed numbers are what determine meaning. We live in a world biased by numbers and thus biblical times are counter intuitive to us as much as our world would be counter intuitive to biblical writers.




                  History of scientific method

                  During the period of religious conservatism brought about by the Reformation and Counter-Reformation, Galileo Galilei unveiled his new science of motion. Neither the contents of Galileo’s science, nor the methods of study he selected were in keeping with Aristotelian teachings. Whereas Aristotle thought that a science should be demonstrated from first principles, Galileo had used experiments as a research tool.




                  The Bible was written in the ages when Plato and Aristotle's ideals dominated disciplined educated minds. The age when the real meaning of events was not decreeable through observation. Numbers as representations of events were not persuasive or interesting but deemed dangerous. So rather than attempt to relay actual numbers for events, numbers are used in the Bible to link like events and convey the greater meaning behind the story or event. As David said, 40 is generally used in the bible to symbolize a period of testing, trial, or probation. from Moses, Jonah, Ezekiel and Jesus 40, appears 146 times in scripture in stories and events with this reoccurring theme.



                  • Moses crosses the Sinai Peninsula in 40 years after leading his people out of Egypt.


                  • Mosses spends 40 years in Egypt before leading the exodus.


                  • Mosses spends 40 days and nights on Mount Sinai to receive the 10 commandments.


                  • Ezekiel lays on his right side for 40 days to symbolize Judah's sin.


                  • Jonah warns Nineveh for 40 days of it's destruction.


                  • It rained for 40 days and nights flooding the world to float Noah's Arch.


                  • After being baptized by John, Jesus fasted for 40 days and nights in the desert.


                  etc...



                  Sources:



                  • Meaning of Numbers in the Bible

                  • History of Scientific Method (Galileo_Galilei)

                  • Plato's Cave Allegory

                  • Allegory of the Cave from Plato, Summary and Meaning

                  • Aristotelian Physics






                  share|improve this answer














                  share|improve this answer



                  share|improve this answer








                  edited 3 hours ago

























                  answered 4 hours ago









                  JMSJMS

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