Was the insanity of kings used as an argument against monarchy?What was the source of the idea of a republic?Why does the monarchy of Belgium still exist after Leopold 2?How did the Catholic Pope manage to become more powerful than Kings in old Europe?When was the last time a reigning monarch personally participated in battle?What was the reaction to English monarchs using the title “King of France”?Was there a case where a king died while the heir to the throne was unborn?How was Napoleon able to take power from the RepublicWhy did Francisco Franco never reestablish the Spanish monarchy?Who was the first monarch?When was King John of England given the name 'Dollheart', and who first used it?

How can I get people to remember my character's gender?

Why does this derived table improve performance?

How to use dependency injection and avoid temporal coupling?

What to use instead of cling film to wrap pastry

Where can I go to avoid planes overhead?

My advisor talks about me to his colleague

Introducing Gladys, an intrepid globetrotter

What matters more when it comes to book covers? Is it ‘professional quality’ or relevancy?

How can I roleplay a follower-type character when I as a player have a leader-type personality?

What was Bran's plan to kill the Night King?

How long would it take for people to notice a mass disappearance?

Will 700 more planes a day fly because of the Heathrow expansion?

Shutter speed -vs- effective image stabilisation

Unit test when a method calls another one

What was the first sci-fi story to feature the plot "the humans were the monsters all along"?

Is there an official reason for not adding a post-credits scene?

Verb "geeitet" in an old scientific text

Should homeowners insurance cover the cost of the home?

How to increase the size of the cursor in Lubuntu 19.04?

Fender hot rod deluxe connected to speaker simulator diagram

Is there an idiom that support the idea that "inflation is bad"?

What is the solution to this metapuzzle from a university puzzling column?

Point of the Dothraki's attack in GoT S8E3?

How should I tell my manager I'm not paying for an optional after work event I'm not going to?



Was the insanity of kings used as an argument against monarchy?


What was the source of the idea of a republic?Why does the monarchy of Belgium still exist after Leopold 2?How did the Catholic Pope manage to become more powerful than Kings in old Europe?When was the last time a reigning monarch personally participated in battle?What was the reaction to English monarchs using the title “King of France”?Was there a case where a king died while the heir to the throne was unborn?How was Napoleon able to take power from the RepublicWhy did Francisco Franco never reestablish the Spanish monarchy?Who was the first monarch?When was King John of England given the name 'Dollheart', and who first used it?













14















History has seen its share of mentally impaired monarchs. Some examples from the last centuries include King George III of the United Kingdom, Emperor Ferdinand I of Austria, and Emperor Taishō of Japan. It seems natural (to me, at least) that that insanity is used as an argument against Monarchy, as opposed to a Republican form of government. My question is: was this argument against Monarchy used throughout history? If it was, then when and where it was used?










share|improve this question



















  • 48





    US politics suggests that this is a non argument :-) & :-(

    – Russell McMahon
    Apr 9 at 12:52






  • 3





    @RussellMcMahon :-D

    – José Carlos Santos
    Apr 9 at 13:08







  • 3





    @RussellMcMahon : EU politics also show similar trends...

    – vsz
    Apr 9 at 15:48






  • 3





    @vsz: Meh, per the video's title he was just drunk there. May's struggles to cope with reality, on the other hand...

    – Denis de Bernardy
    Apr 9 at 17:10






  • 3





    Just to clarify, George III was almost certainly not mad, but suffering from porphyria, although this was not known at the time.

    – TheHonRose
    Apr 9 at 20:29
















14















History has seen its share of mentally impaired monarchs. Some examples from the last centuries include King George III of the United Kingdom, Emperor Ferdinand I of Austria, and Emperor Taishō of Japan. It seems natural (to me, at least) that that insanity is used as an argument against Monarchy, as opposed to a Republican form of government. My question is: was this argument against Monarchy used throughout history? If it was, then when and where it was used?










share|improve this question



















  • 48





    US politics suggests that this is a non argument :-) & :-(

    – Russell McMahon
    Apr 9 at 12:52






  • 3





    @RussellMcMahon :-D

    – José Carlos Santos
    Apr 9 at 13:08







  • 3





    @RussellMcMahon : EU politics also show similar trends...

    – vsz
    Apr 9 at 15:48






  • 3





    @vsz: Meh, per the video's title he was just drunk there. May's struggles to cope with reality, on the other hand...

    – Denis de Bernardy
    Apr 9 at 17:10






  • 3





    Just to clarify, George III was almost certainly not mad, but suffering from porphyria, although this was not known at the time.

    – TheHonRose
    Apr 9 at 20:29














14












14








14








History has seen its share of mentally impaired monarchs. Some examples from the last centuries include King George III of the United Kingdom, Emperor Ferdinand I of Austria, and Emperor Taishō of Japan. It seems natural (to me, at least) that that insanity is used as an argument against Monarchy, as opposed to a Republican form of government. My question is: was this argument against Monarchy used throughout history? If it was, then when and where it was used?










share|improve this question
















History has seen its share of mentally impaired monarchs. Some examples from the last centuries include King George III of the United Kingdom, Emperor Ferdinand I of Austria, and Emperor Taishō of Japan. It seems natural (to me, at least) that that insanity is used as an argument against Monarchy, as opposed to a Republican form of government. My question is: was this argument against Monarchy used throughout history? If it was, then when and where it was used?







monarchy republic






share|improve this question















share|improve this question













share|improve this question




share|improve this question








edited Apr 17 at 22:33









curiousdannii

1859




1859










asked Apr 9 at 10:09









José Carlos SantosJosé Carlos Santos

1,2501529




1,2501529







  • 48





    US politics suggests that this is a non argument :-) & :-(

    – Russell McMahon
    Apr 9 at 12:52






  • 3





    @RussellMcMahon :-D

    – José Carlos Santos
    Apr 9 at 13:08







  • 3





    @RussellMcMahon : EU politics also show similar trends...

    – vsz
    Apr 9 at 15:48






  • 3





    @vsz: Meh, per the video's title he was just drunk there. May's struggles to cope with reality, on the other hand...

    – Denis de Bernardy
    Apr 9 at 17:10






  • 3





    Just to clarify, George III was almost certainly not mad, but suffering from porphyria, although this was not known at the time.

    – TheHonRose
    Apr 9 at 20:29













  • 48





    US politics suggests that this is a non argument :-) & :-(

    – Russell McMahon
    Apr 9 at 12:52






  • 3





    @RussellMcMahon :-D

    – José Carlos Santos
    Apr 9 at 13:08







  • 3





    @RussellMcMahon : EU politics also show similar trends...

    – vsz
    Apr 9 at 15:48






  • 3





    @vsz: Meh, per the video's title he was just drunk there. May's struggles to cope with reality, on the other hand...

    – Denis de Bernardy
    Apr 9 at 17:10






  • 3





    Just to clarify, George III was almost certainly not mad, but suffering from porphyria, although this was not known at the time.

    – TheHonRose
    Apr 9 at 20:29








48




48





US politics suggests that this is a non argument :-) & :-(

– Russell McMahon
Apr 9 at 12:52





US politics suggests that this is a non argument :-) & :-(

– Russell McMahon
Apr 9 at 12:52




3




3





@RussellMcMahon :-D

– José Carlos Santos
Apr 9 at 13:08






@RussellMcMahon :-D

– José Carlos Santos
Apr 9 at 13:08





3




3





@RussellMcMahon : EU politics also show similar trends...

– vsz
Apr 9 at 15:48





@RussellMcMahon : EU politics also show similar trends...

– vsz
Apr 9 at 15:48




3




3





@vsz: Meh, per the video's title he was just drunk there. May's struggles to cope with reality, on the other hand...

– Denis de Bernardy
Apr 9 at 17:10





@vsz: Meh, per the video's title he was just drunk there. May's struggles to cope with reality, on the other hand...

– Denis de Bernardy
Apr 9 at 17:10




3




3





Just to clarify, George III was almost certainly not mad, but suffering from porphyria, although this was not known at the time.

– TheHonRose
Apr 9 at 20:29






Just to clarify, George III was almost certainly not mad, but suffering from porphyria, although this was not known at the time.

– TheHonRose
Apr 9 at 20:29











2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















34














Mental illness wasn't perceived as a medical condition until recent centuries. It became notional that it might be during the Enlightenment, and it only captured the popular imagination that it was with Freud.



There were still hereditary autocratic monarchies around then, but I'd stick my neck out and suggest that the main argument against them until that point and later revolved around their legitimacy and representativity rather than the off chance a monarch might be mentally unfit.



To the best of my knowledge, when past monarchs were mentally ill, some kind of regent or successor would often step in. Or they'd get deposed or killed, and replaced by someone more fit to reign. Or they'd simply be kept out of sight (Taishō of Japan), sidelined (Charles VI of France), or jailed (Joanna of Castile), while others filled the power vacuum.



The example of Ludwig II of Bavaria, for instance, is instructive. He was an eccentric with extravagant spending habits. This led conspirators to get him certified as mentally unfit to rule -- this was very controversial because they did so without even examining him. His heir was his younger brother Otto. He was considered insane and unfit to rule at the time. So his uncle and cousin ended up reigning instead, until the latter deposed him outright.



The commonality here is that a mad king is temporary state of affairs, perhaps even one that can be exploited by opportunists, rather than a problem that prompts observers to question whether there should be a monarchy to begin with.






share|improve this answer


















  • 12





    beat me too it. as long as regents exist the argument is a non-starter

    – Orangesandlemons
    Apr 9 at 12:06











  • Pls read some political science! Monarchy was rejected because monarchs could not make things happen: Any change deleteriously affected some nobles' ancient rights and privileges and so were adamantly and often violently opposed. Many kings, including John of Robin Hood and Magna Carta fame, and Charles I, who lost his head over this issue, had good ideas for bringing progress to their realms, but could not implement them due to opposition of the hereditary nobility. Their reliance on the divine right of kings cost them everything.

    – CElliott
    Apr 10 at 1:18






  • 1





    @CElliott: I fail to see how what you describe doesn't fall under legitimacy and representativity.

    – Denis de Bernardy
    Apr 10 at 2:26






  • 1





    @CElliott Charles I lost to a parliamentary faction, which while not democratic by modern standards was the direct predecessor to modern democratic government. I've not heard of any of his "progress ideas"?

    – pjc50
    Apr 10 at 10:05






  • 1





    Perhaps "mental illness" wasn't thought of as a medical condition, but madness was certainly recognized. For instance Roman Emperors Nero and Caligula.

    – jamesqf
    Apr 10 at 17:28


















0














In much of the ancient world being ruled by a king was percieved as the natural course of things (although many societies did believe rebellion against an unjust ruler was justified) a sort of heaven does not permit two suns nor does a nation 2 rulers so to speak. Even for a society with strong democratic institutions such as Rome, the preference for(supposedly) competent people like Caesar and Augustus over supposedly corrupt senators such as Cassius outweighed strict aherence to every check and balance of the system.
@Russell McMachon the US political system is not really broken however inept the current administration may be, the democratic system is alive an well.






share|improve this answer























    Your Answer








    StackExchange.ready(function()
    var channelOptions =
    tags: "".split(" "),
    id: "324"
    ;
    initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

    StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function()
    // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
    if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled)
    StackExchange.using("snippets", function()
    createEditor();
    );

    else
    createEditor();

    );

    function createEditor()
    StackExchange.prepareEditor(
    heartbeatType: 'answer',
    autoActivateHeartbeat: false,
    convertImagesToLinks: false,
    noModals: true,
    showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
    reputationToPostImages: null,
    bindNavPrevention: true,
    postfix: "",
    imageUploader:
    brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
    contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
    allowUrls: true
    ,
    noCode: true, onDemand: true,
    discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
    ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
    );



    );













    draft saved

    draft discarded


















    StackExchange.ready(
    function ()
    StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fhistory.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f52020%2fwas-the-insanity-of-kings-used-as-an-argument-against-monarchy%23new-answer', 'question_page');

    );

    Post as a guest















    Required, but never shown

























    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes








    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    34














    Mental illness wasn't perceived as a medical condition until recent centuries. It became notional that it might be during the Enlightenment, and it only captured the popular imagination that it was with Freud.



    There were still hereditary autocratic monarchies around then, but I'd stick my neck out and suggest that the main argument against them until that point and later revolved around their legitimacy and representativity rather than the off chance a monarch might be mentally unfit.



    To the best of my knowledge, when past monarchs were mentally ill, some kind of regent or successor would often step in. Or they'd get deposed or killed, and replaced by someone more fit to reign. Or they'd simply be kept out of sight (Taishō of Japan), sidelined (Charles VI of France), or jailed (Joanna of Castile), while others filled the power vacuum.



    The example of Ludwig II of Bavaria, for instance, is instructive. He was an eccentric with extravagant spending habits. This led conspirators to get him certified as mentally unfit to rule -- this was very controversial because they did so without even examining him. His heir was his younger brother Otto. He was considered insane and unfit to rule at the time. So his uncle and cousin ended up reigning instead, until the latter deposed him outright.



    The commonality here is that a mad king is temporary state of affairs, perhaps even one that can be exploited by opportunists, rather than a problem that prompts observers to question whether there should be a monarchy to begin with.






    share|improve this answer


















    • 12





      beat me too it. as long as regents exist the argument is a non-starter

      – Orangesandlemons
      Apr 9 at 12:06











    • Pls read some political science! Monarchy was rejected because monarchs could not make things happen: Any change deleteriously affected some nobles' ancient rights and privileges and so were adamantly and often violently opposed. Many kings, including John of Robin Hood and Magna Carta fame, and Charles I, who lost his head over this issue, had good ideas for bringing progress to their realms, but could not implement them due to opposition of the hereditary nobility. Their reliance on the divine right of kings cost them everything.

      – CElliott
      Apr 10 at 1:18






    • 1





      @CElliott: I fail to see how what you describe doesn't fall under legitimacy and representativity.

      – Denis de Bernardy
      Apr 10 at 2:26






    • 1





      @CElliott Charles I lost to a parliamentary faction, which while not democratic by modern standards was the direct predecessor to modern democratic government. I've not heard of any of his "progress ideas"?

      – pjc50
      Apr 10 at 10:05






    • 1





      Perhaps "mental illness" wasn't thought of as a medical condition, but madness was certainly recognized. For instance Roman Emperors Nero and Caligula.

      – jamesqf
      Apr 10 at 17:28















    34














    Mental illness wasn't perceived as a medical condition until recent centuries. It became notional that it might be during the Enlightenment, and it only captured the popular imagination that it was with Freud.



    There were still hereditary autocratic monarchies around then, but I'd stick my neck out and suggest that the main argument against them until that point and later revolved around their legitimacy and representativity rather than the off chance a monarch might be mentally unfit.



    To the best of my knowledge, when past monarchs were mentally ill, some kind of regent or successor would often step in. Or they'd get deposed or killed, and replaced by someone more fit to reign. Or they'd simply be kept out of sight (Taishō of Japan), sidelined (Charles VI of France), or jailed (Joanna of Castile), while others filled the power vacuum.



    The example of Ludwig II of Bavaria, for instance, is instructive. He was an eccentric with extravagant spending habits. This led conspirators to get him certified as mentally unfit to rule -- this was very controversial because they did so without even examining him. His heir was his younger brother Otto. He was considered insane and unfit to rule at the time. So his uncle and cousin ended up reigning instead, until the latter deposed him outright.



    The commonality here is that a mad king is temporary state of affairs, perhaps even one that can be exploited by opportunists, rather than a problem that prompts observers to question whether there should be a monarchy to begin with.






    share|improve this answer


















    • 12





      beat me too it. as long as regents exist the argument is a non-starter

      – Orangesandlemons
      Apr 9 at 12:06











    • Pls read some political science! Monarchy was rejected because monarchs could not make things happen: Any change deleteriously affected some nobles' ancient rights and privileges and so were adamantly and often violently opposed. Many kings, including John of Robin Hood and Magna Carta fame, and Charles I, who lost his head over this issue, had good ideas for bringing progress to their realms, but could not implement them due to opposition of the hereditary nobility. Their reliance on the divine right of kings cost them everything.

      – CElliott
      Apr 10 at 1:18






    • 1





      @CElliott: I fail to see how what you describe doesn't fall under legitimacy and representativity.

      – Denis de Bernardy
      Apr 10 at 2:26






    • 1





      @CElliott Charles I lost to a parliamentary faction, which while not democratic by modern standards was the direct predecessor to modern democratic government. I've not heard of any of his "progress ideas"?

      – pjc50
      Apr 10 at 10:05






    • 1





      Perhaps "mental illness" wasn't thought of as a medical condition, but madness was certainly recognized. For instance Roman Emperors Nero and Caligula.

      – jamesqf
      Apr 10 at 17:28













    34












    34








    34







    Mental illness wasn't perceived as a medical condition until recent centuries. It became notional that it might be during the Enlightenment, and it only captured the popular imagination that it was with Freud.



    There were still hereditary autocratic monarchies around then, but I'd stick my neck out and suggest that the main argument against them until that point and later revolved around their legitimacy and representativity rather than the off chance a monarch might be mentally unfit.



    To the best of my knowledge, when past monarchs were mentally ill, some kind of regent or successor would often step in. Or they'd get deposed or killed, and replaced by someone more fit to reign. Or they'd simply be kept out of sight (Taishō of Japan), sidelined (Charles VI of France), or jailed (Joanna of Castile), while others filled the power vacuum.



    The example of Ludwig II of Bavaria, for instance, is instructive. He was an eccentric with extravagant spending habits. This led conspirators to get him certified as mentally unfit to rule -- this was very controversial because they did so without even examining him. His heir was his younger brother Otto. He was considered insane and unfit to rule at the time. So his uncle and cousin ended up reigning instead, until the latter deposed him outright.



    The commonality here is that a mad king is temporary state of affairs, perhaps even one that can be exploited by opportunists, rather than a problem that prompts observers to question whether there should be a monarchy to begin with.






    share|improve this answer













    Mental illness wasn't perceived as a medical condition until recent centuries. It became notional that it might be during the Enlightenment, and it only captured the popular imagination that it was with Freud.



    There were still hereditary autocratic monarchies around then, but I'd stick my neck out and suggest that the main argument against them until that point and later revolved around their legitimacy and representativity rather than the off chance a monarch might be mentally unfit.



    To the best of my knowledge, when past monarchs were mentally ill, some kind of regent or successor would often step in. Or they'd get deposed or killed, and replaced by someone more fit to reign. Or they'd simply be kept out of sight (Taishō of Japan), sidelined (Charles VI of France), or jailed (Joanna of Castile), while others filled the power vacuum.



    The example of Ludwig II of Bavaria, for instance, is instructive. He was an eccentric with extravagant spending habits. This led conspirators to get him certified as mentally unfit to rule -- this was very controversial because they did so without even examining him. His heir was his younger brother Otto. He was considered insane and unfit to rule at the time. So his uncle and cousin ended up reigning instead, until the latter deposed him outright.



    The commonality here is that a mad king is temporary state of affairs, perhaps even one that can be exploited by opportunists, rather than a problem that prompts observers to question whether there should be a monarchy to begin with.







    share|improve this answer












    share|improve this answer



    share|improve this answer










    answered Apr 9 at 11:51









    Denis de BernardyDenis de Bernardy

    15.2k24958




    15.2k24958







    • 12





      beat me too it. as long as regents exist the argument is a non-starter

      – Orangesandlemons
      Apr 9 at 12:06











    • Pls read some political science! Monarchy was rejected because monarchs could not make things happen: Any change deleteriously affected some nobles' ancient rights and privileges and so were adamantly and often violently opposed. Many kings, including John of Robin Hood and Magna Carta fame, and Charles I, who lost his head over this issue, had good ideas for bringing progress to their realms, but could not implement them due to opposition of the hereditary nobility. Their reliance on the divine right of kings cost them everything.

      – CElliott
      Apr 10 at 1:18






    • 1





      @CElliott: I fail to see how what you describe doesn't fall under legitimacy and representativity.

      – Denis de Bernardy
      Apr 10 at 2:26






    • 1





      @CElliott Charles I lost to a parliamentary faction, which while not democratic by modern standards was the direct predecessor to modern democratic government. I've not heard of any of his "progress ideas"?

      – pjc50
      Apr 10 at 10:05






    • 1





      Perhaps "mental illness" wasn't thought of as a medical condition, but madness was certainly recognized. For instance Roman Emperors Nero and Caligula.

      – jamesqf
      Apr 10 at 17:28












    • 12





      beat me too it. as long as regents exist the argument is a non-starter

      – Orangesandlemons
      Apr 9 at 12:06











    • Pls read some political science! Monarchy was rejected because monarchs could not make things happen: Any change deleteriously affected some nobles' ancient rights and privileges and so were adamantly and often violently opposed. Many kings, including John of Robin Hood and Magna Carta fame, and Charles I, who lost his head over this issue, had good ideas for bringing progress to their realms, but could not implement them due to opposition of the hereditary nobility. Their reliance on the divine right of kings cost them everything.

      – CElliott
      Apr 10 at 1:18






    • 1





      @CElliott: I fail to see how what you describe doesn't fall under legitimacy and representativity.

      – Denis de Bernardy
      Apr 10 at 2:26






    • 1





      @CElliott Charles I lost to a parliamentary faction, which while not democratic by modern standards was the direct predecessor to modern democratic government. I've not heard of any of his "progress ideas"?

      – pjc50
      Apr 10 at 10:05






    • 1





      Perhaps "mental illness" wasn't thought of as a medical condition, but madness was certainly recognized. For instance Roman Emperors Nero and Caligula.

      – jamesqf
      Apr 10 at 17:28







    12




    12





    beat me too it. as long as regents exist the argument is a non-starter

    – Orangesandlemons
    Apr 9 at 12:06





    beat me too it. as long as regents exist the argument is a non-starter

    – Orangesandlemons
    Apr 9 at 12:06













    Pls read some political science! Monarchy was rejected because monarchs could not make things happen: Any change deleteriously affected some nobles' ancient rights and privileges and so were adamantly and often violently opposed. Many kings, including John of Robin Hood and Magna Carta fame, and Charles I, who lost his head over this issue, had good ideas for bringing progress to their realms, but could not implement them due to opposition of the hereditary nobility. Their reliance on the divine right of kings cost them everything.

    – CElliott
    Apr 10 at 1:18





    Pls read some political science! Monarchy was rejected because monarchs could not make things happen: Any change deleteriously affected some nobles' ancient rights and privileges and so were adamantly and often violently opposed. Many kings, including John of Robin Hood and Magna Carta fame, and Charles I, who lost his head over this issue, had good ideas for bringing progress to their realms, but could not implement them due to opposition of the hereditary nobility. Their reliance on the divine right of kings cost them everything.

    – CElliott
    Apr 10 at 1:18




    1




    1





    @CElliott: I fail to see how what you describe doesn't fall under legitimacy and representativity.

    – Denis de Bernardy
    Apr 10 at 2:26





    @CElliott: I fail to see how what you describe doesn't fall under legitimacy and representativity.

    – Denis de Bernardy
    Apr 10 at 2:26




    1




    1





    @CElliott Charles I lost to a parliamentary faction, which while not democratic by modern standards was the direct predecessor to modern democratic government. I've not heard of any of his "progress ideas"?

    – pjc50
    Apr 10 at 10:05





    @CElliott Charles I lost to a parliamentary faction, which while not democratic by modern standards was the direct predecessor to modern democratic government. I've not heard of any of his "progress ideas"?

    – pjc50
    Apr 10 at 10:05




    1




    1





    Perhaps "mental illness" wasn't thought of as a medical condition, but madness was certainly recognized. For instance Roman Emperors Nero and Caligula.

    – jamesqf
    Apr 10 at 17:28





    Perhaps "mental illness" wasn't thought of as a medical condition, but madness was certainly recognized. For instance Roman Emperors Nero and Caligula.

    – jamesqf
    Apr 10 at 17:28











    0














    In much of the ancient world being ruled by a king was percieved as the natural course of things (although many societies did believe rebellion against an unjust ruler was justified) a sort of heaven does not permit two suns nor does a nation 2 rulers so to speak. Even for a society with strong democratic institutions such as Rome, the preference for(supposedly) competent people like Caesar and Augustus over supposedly corrupt senators such as Cassius outweighed strict aherence to every check and balance of the system.
    @Russell McMachon the US political system is not really broken however inept the current administration may be, the democratic system is alive an well.






    share|improve this answer



























      0














      In much of the ancient world being ruled by a king was percieved as the natural course of things (although many societies did believe rebellion against an unjust ruler was justified) a sort of heaven does not permit two suns nor does a nation 2 rulers so to speak. Even for a society with strong democratic institutions such as Rome, the preference for(supposedly) competent people like Caesar and Augustus over supposedly corrupt senators such as Cassius outweighed strict aherence to every check and balance of the system.
      @Russell McMachon the US political system is not really broken however inept the current administration may be, the democratic system is alive an well.






      share|improve this answer

























        0












        0








        0







        In much of the ancient world being ruled by a king was percieved as the natural course of things (although many societies did believe rebellion against an unjust ruler was justified) a sort of heaven does not permit two suns nor does a nation 2 rulers so to speak. Even for a society with strong democratic institutions such as Rome, the preference for(supposedly) competent people like Caesar and Augustus over supposedly corrupt senators such as Cassius outweighed strict aherence to every check and balance of the system.
        @Russell McMachon the US political system is not really broken however inept the current administration may be, the democratic system is alive an well.






        share|improve this answer













        In much of the ancient world being ruled by a king was percieved as the natural course of things (although many societies did believe rebellion against an unjust ruler was justified) a sort of heaven does not permit two suns nor does a nation 2 rulers so to speak. Even for a society with strong democratic institutions such as Rome, the preference for(supposedly) competent people like Caesar and Augustus over supposedly corrupt senators such as Cassius outweighed strict aherence to every check and balance of the system.
        @Russell McMachon the US political system is not really broken however inept the current administration may be, the democratic system is alive an well.







        share|improve this answer












        share|improve this answer



        share|improve this answer










        answered Apr 18 at 19:58









        Hao SunHao Sun

        39138




        39138



























            draft saved

            draft discarded
















































            Thanks for contributing an answer to History Stack Exchange!


            • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

            But avoid


            • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

            • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.

            To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.




            draft saved


            draft discarded














            StackExchange.ready(
            function ()
            StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fhistory.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f52020%2fwas-the-insanity-of-kings-used-as-an-argument-against-monarchy%23new-answer', 'question_page');

            );

            Post as a guest















            Required, but never shown





















































            Required, but never shown














            Required, but never shown












            Required, but never shown







            Required, but never shown

































            Required, but never shown














            Required, but never shown












            Required, but never shown







            Required, but never shown







            Popular posts from this blog

            Adding axes to figuresAdding axes labels to LaTeX figuresLaTeX equivalent of ConTeXt buffersRotate a node but not its content: the case of the ellipse decorationHow to define the default vertical distance between nodes?TikZ scaling graphic and adjust node position and keep font sizeNumerical conditional within tikz keys?adding axes to shapesAlign axes across subfiguresAdding figures with a certain orderLine up nested tikz enviroments or how to get rid of themAdding axes labels to LaTeX figures

            Tähtien Talli Jäsenet | Lähteet | NavigointivalikkoSuomen Hippos – Tähtien Talli

            Do these cracks on my tires look bad? The Next CEO of Stack OverflowDry rot tire should I replace?Having to replace tiresFishtailed so easily? Bad tires? ABS?Filling the tires with something other than air, to avoid puncture hassles?Used Michelin tires safe to install?Do these tyre cracks necessitate replacement?Rumbling noise: tires or mechanicalIs it possible to fix noisy feathered tires?Are bad winter tires still better than summer tires in winter?Torque converter failure - Related to replacing only 2 tires?Why use snow tires on all 4 wheels on 2-wheel-drive cars?